Open market operations (OMOS) are the buying and selling of government securities, such as Treasury bills and bonds, by the Federal Reserve in order to regulate the money supply in the economy.
OMOS alter the reserve requirement, which is the minimum amount of reserves a bank must hold, up or down. The money supply increases when OMOS are used to decrease the reserve requirement, because more funds become available for lending. This leads to increased deposits in banks, which then increases the money supply.
When the Federal Reserve sells government securities, it decreases the amount of reserves available in the banking system, which leads to a contraction of the money supply. Conversely, when the Federal Reserve buys government securities, it increases the amount of reserves available in the banking system, which leads to an expansion of the money supply.
In order to increase the money supply, the Federal Reserve will use open market operations to buy government securities. This will increase the amount of reserves in the banking system, leading to an increase in deposit expansion. This increases the money supply, making it easier for consumers and businesses to access credit and loans, leading to increased economic growth.
In summary, open market operations (OMOS) are the buying and selling of government securities by the Federal Reserve in order to regulate the money supply in the economy. Increasing the money supply occurs when the Federal Reserve buys government securities, which increases the amount of reserves in the banking system and fuels deposit expansion.
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If goods are sold on terms FOB shipping point, the ________. A. buyer and the seller split the transportation costs B. seller normally pays the transportation costs C. buyer normally pays the transportation costs D. shipping company bears the transportation cost
Answer:
C. buyer normally pays the transportation costs
Explanation:
If goods are sold on terms FOB shipping point, the buyer normally pays the transportation costs.
FOB (Free on Board) shipping point is a shipping term that indicates that the buyer takes ownership of the goods and assumes responsibility for them as soon as they are loaded onto the carrier (e.g., truck, ship, or plane) at the seller's shipping dock. This means that the buyer is responsible for paying the transportation costs and for any loss or damage that may occur during transportation.
In contrast, FOB destination means that the seller is responsible for the goods and transportation costs until the goods reach the buyer's specified destination.
the tactic that refers to an ad from a site recently visited appears on an unrelated page is called:
The tactic that refers to an ad from a site recently visited appears on an unrelated page is called remarketing.
What is remarketing?
Remarketing is a technique that helps websites in advertising their products or services to users who have previously visited their site.
It is a highly effective advertising technique that relies on the principle that the majority of people do not make a purchase the first time they visit a website.
As a result, by showing highly personalized advertising to individuals who have already shown interest in a particular product or service, a company can increase its chances of making a sale or obtaining a lead.
Marketing firms that use remarketing technology can identify which of their users have interacted with their websites previously using cookies.
They can then use this information to deliver targeted advertising to users across a variety of websites and devices.
This advertising is tailored to each individual's interests and browsing history and is delivered to them wherever they are on the web. Remarketing is regarded as one of the most effective advertising tactics currently available.
A tactic is a plan or action intended to achieve a specific goal. In marketing, tactics are actions taken by companies to promote their products or services to a specific audience.
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a. what factors determine the elasticity of resource demand? multiple choice A. income of buyers in the market and the ratio of resource costs to total revenues B. ease of resource substitutability, elasticity of product demand, and the ratio of resource costs to total costs C. elasticity of product supply and the price of the resource D. elasticity of product supply, the ratio of resource costs to total revenues, and the income of buyers in the market b. what effect will each of the following have on the elasticity or the location of the demand for resource c, which is being used to produce commodity x?I. An Increase In the demand for product X:ii. An increase in the price of substitute resource D: ill. An increase in the number of resources substitutable for C in producing X: iv. A technological improvement in the capital equipment with which resource C is combined: v. A fall in the price of complementary resource E:vi. A decline in the elasticity of demand for product X due to a decline in the competitiveness of product market X:
The factors that determine the elasticity of resource demand are multiple choice A. income of buyers in the market and the ratio of resource costs to total revenues.
Ease of resource substitutability, elasticity of product demand, and the ratio of resource costs to total costs, C. elasticity of product supply, and the price of the resource, and D. elasticity of product supply, the ratio of resource costs to total revenues, and the income of buyers in the market.b. The effects that each of the following factors will have on the elasticity or the location of the demand for resource c, which is being used to produce commodity x, are:I. An Increase In the demand for product X - When there is an increase in the demand for product X, the demand for resource C used to produce commodity X also increases. This increase in demand leads to an increase in the price of resource C, which makes the demand for resource C more inelastic.ii. An increase in the price of substitute resource D - When the price of substitute resource D increases, the demand for resource C used to produce commodity X decreases. This decrease in demand leads to a decrease in the price of resource C, which makes the demand for resource C more elastic.ill. An increase in the number of resources substitutable for C in producing X - When the number of resources substitutable for C in producing commodity X increases, the demand for resource C used to produce commodity X decreases. This decrease in demand leads to a decrease in the price of resource C, which makes the demand for resource C more elastic.iv. A technological improvement in the capital equipment with which resource C is combined - When there is a technological improvement in the capital equipment with which resource C is combined, the demand for resource C used to produce commodity X increases. This increase in demand leads to an increase in the price of resource C, which makes the demand for resource C more inelastic.v. A fall in the price of complementary resource E - When the price of complementary resource E falls, the demand for resource C used to produce commodity X increases. This increase in demand leads to an increase in the price of resource C, which makes the demand for resource C more inelastic.vi. A decline in the elasticity of demand for product X due to a decline in the competitiveness of product market X - When there is a decline in the elasticity of demand for product X due to a decline in the competitiveness of product market X, the demand for resource C used to produce commodity X decreases. This decrease in demand leads to a decrease in the price of resource C, which makes the demand for resource C more elastic.
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OU Inc. is considering the launch of a new product but there is some uncertainty about how the product will actually be received. Accordingly, your junior analyst has provided you with three sets of market conditions and estimated the probability of each set of circumstances (we learn after one year what will happen from that point forward). Starting the project today would incur costs of $15,000,000, the appropriate cost of capital is 10%. od: The product is very well received, and profits are estimated to start at $1,300,000 in year with 30% annual growth for 2 years and then slowing to 4% growth into the foreseeable ture (at least 30 years). The probability of this occurring is estimated to be 30%. avarage: Profits start at $1,250,000 in year 1 and grow continuously at 3% for the foreseeable ture. Probability of occurring is 50% Poor: Profits start at $1,000,000 in year 1 but then drop off by 12% each year into the reseeable future. Probability of occurring is 20%. a. What is the NPV of this project? b. If you wait for one year so that there would be no uncertainty about the project's outcome before investing, what is the project's NPV? What is the value of the real option to wait?
a. The Net Present Value (NPV) of this project is: $13,888,652
b. Value of the real option to wait = -$528,848
a. The Net Present Value (NPV) of this project is: $13,888,652
Very Well Received Scenario: NPV = ($15,000,000) + ($1,300,000/1.10) + ($2,069,000/1.102) + ($2,440,200/1.103) + ($2,803,578/1.104) = $14,417,500
Average Scenario: NPV = ($15,000,000) + ($1,250,000/1.10) + ($1,553,500/1.103) + ($1,868,545/1.106) + ($2,195,358/1.109) = $14,239,794
Poor Scenario: NPV = ($15,000,000) + ($1,000,000/1.10) + ($890,000/1.112) + ($793,680/1.114) + ($703,264/1.116) = $12,488,744
The expected NPV of this project is then calculated as the weighted average of the three scenarios, which is equal to:
Expected NPV = (30% x $14,417,500) + (50% x $14,239,794) + (20% x $12,488,744) = $13,888,652
b. If you wait for one year, the NPV of the project is then equal to the NPV of the Very Well Received Scenario:
NPV = ($15,000,000) + ($1,300,000/1.10) + ($2,069,000/1.102) + ($2,440,200/1.103) + ($2,803,578/1.104) = $14,417,500
The value of the real option to wait is then equal to the difference between the expected NPV and the NPV if you wait for one year, which is equal to:
Value of the real option to wait = $13,888,652 - $14,417,500 = -$528,848
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please select the best answer. according to the study done by the securities and exchange commission(sec) in recent years, greatest number of enforcement actions was in the area of
According to the study conducted by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) in recent years, the greatest number of enforcement actions was in the area of fraud involving securities.
What is the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)?
The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is an autonomous agency of the United States federal government that is responsible for regulating the country's financial markets and enforcing federal securities regulations. It is responsible for the protection of investors, the maintenance of fair, orderly, and efficient markets, and the facilitation of capital formation.
The SEC is led by five commissioners appointed by the President of the United States and is headquartered in Washington, D.C.
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Assume an investor acquired 100% of the voting common stock of an investee on January 1, 2015 in a transaction that qualifies as a business combination. As a result of the acquisition, the investor recognized no goodwill and no bargain purchase gain in the post-acquisition consolidated financial statements (i.e., all of the resulting Acquisition Accounting Premium relates to identifiable net assets). The investor uses the equity method to account for its pre-consolidation investment in the investee. In addition, there are no intercompany transactions between the investor and investee. The following summarized pre-consolidation financial statement information is for the year ending December 31, 2022: Income Statement Investor Investee Revenues $2,343,600 $322,560 Income from investee 148,680 -
Expenses (1,890,000) (163,800)
Net income $602,280 $158,760 Retained Earnings Statement Investor Investee Retained earnings, January 1 $756,000 $37,800 Net Income 602,280 158,760 Dividends declared (63,000) (37,800) Retained earnings, December 31 $1,295,280 $158,760 Balance Sheet Investor Investee Investment in investee $297,360 $- All other assets 4,828,320 403,200 Total assets $5,125,680 $403,200 Liabilities $3,024,000 $156,240 Common stock & APIC 806,400 88,200 Retained earnings 1,295,280 158,760 T
otal liabilities and equity $5,125,680 $403,200 What amount of "total assets" will appear in the consolidated balance sheet at December 31, 2022? Select one: a. $5,125,680 b. $5,281,920 c. $5,528,880 d. $4,828,320
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) $5,281,920.
The consolidated balance sheet will include the assets, liabilities, and equity of both the investor and investee. Since the investor owns 100% of the voting common stock of the investee, the consolidation will result in the elimination of the investment in the investee account and the inclusion of the underlying assets and liabilities of the investee.
Based on the given information, the consolidated balance sheet at December 31, 2022 will include the following:
Investor's assets: $5,125,680
Investee's assets: $403,200
Elimination of investment in investee account: ($297,360)
Total consolidated assets: $5,231,520
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) $5,281,920.
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an important element to successfully managing a difficult conversation that involves choosing language carefully to deliver a message that will not provoke the other side is referred to as...
Tactful communication is an important element to successfully managing a difficult conversation that involves choosing language carefully to deliver a message that will not provoke the other side.
It requires being aware of the impact of words and tone, listening actively, showing respect, and trying to find common ground to reach a mutually beneficial outcome. Tactful communication involves being assertive but not aggressive, and avoiding language that can trigger defensiveness or hostility. It can help to de-escalate emotions, build trust, and maintain positive relationships even in challenging situations.
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The skills and capabilities that give an organization special competencies and competitive advantages in executing strategies in pursuit of its mission are called organizational ______.
A. opportunities
B. threats
C. strengths
D. weaknesses
Answer:strengths
Explanation:
The skills and capabilities that give an organization special competencies and competitive advantages in executing strategies in pursuit of its mission are called organizational strengths.
What is Organizational strength?
Organizational strengths refer to the resources and capabilities of an organization that can be leveraged for strategic gain, according to strategic management. These may include a wide range of variables, such as intellectual capital, financial strength, human resources, leadership, and organizational culture.
They are considered to be internal characteristics of an organization that offer it a strategic edge in terms of strategy execution. They may include factors such as technical expertise, experience, employee engagement, and other characteristics that enable an organization to develop an efficient business model, make smart decisions, and remain competitive.
Therefore, the correct answer is C.
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Which statement best describes the U.S. framework for determining if an individual who is not a U.S. citizen will be treated as a resident alien for U.S. tax purposes?
Multiple Choice a. A person must have a green card and meet a substantial presence test to be treated as a resident alien for U.S. tax purposes. b. A person must have a green card to be treated as a resident alien for U.S. tax purposes. c. A person must meet a substantial presence test to be treated as a resident alien for U.S. tax purposes. d. A person with a green card will always be treated as a resident alien for U.S. tax purposes, while a person without a green card may be treated as a resident alien if she meets a substantial presence test.
The correct answer to the question is option C. A person must meet a substantial presence test to be treated as a resident alien for U.S. tax purposes.
An individual must pass a substantial presence test in order to be considered a resident alien for U.S. tax purposes. This is the U.S. framework for doing so. The U.S. framework for assessing whether a person who is not a U.S. citizen would be considered as a resident alien for U.S. tax reasons is thus best described by option C.The government of a nation imposes income tax on its citizens, businesses, and other people who make money inside its boundaries. As a result, each country has its own set of tax laws that specify who must pay taxes, how much must be paid, and when must be paid. Residents of the United States pay taxes on their worldwide income, whereas nonresidents only pay taxes on their income that is earned in the United States. Nonresident aliens who make money in the US must pay taxes on it, but it can be tricky to determine whether one is a resident for tax reasons.A nonresident alien's status as a resident for tax purposes can be determined using the significant presence test. It is a numerical computation that takes into account how many days the nonresident is really physically present in the country throughout a predetermined time frame. This duration is usually the present year and the two previous years, known as the "look-back period." If a nonresident spends more than 183 days in the United States during the look-back period, they will be considered a resident for tax purposes in the current year.
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true or false: requiring employees to take a two week vacation is an effective internal control procedure because it is more difficult to hide fraud or deceptive activities if an employee is absent from work for an extended period of time.
The given statement " requiring employees to take a two week vacation is an effective internal control procedure because it is more difficult to hide fraud or deceptive activities if an employee is absent from work for an extended period of time." is true becasue internal control procedure can make it more difficult for employees to engage in fraud or other deceptive activities if they are absent from work for an extended period of time.
During an employee's absence, another employee can review their work and catch any irregularities or errors that may have gone unnoticed otherwise. This control procedure also provides an opportunity for other employees to learn and take over the absent employee's responsibilities, which can improve the organization's overall knowledge and capabilities.
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Dr. Neuman is a marketing professor and uses her students in research studies because they are convenient and readily accessible. She is using a _____ sample.
Dr. Neuman is a marketing professor and uses her students in research studies because they are convenient and readily accessible. She is using a convenience sample.
What is a convenience sample?A convenience sample is a non-probability sampling method that involves selecting subjects based on their convenient accessibility and proximity to the researcher.
In this sampling technique, subjects are selected simply because they are readily available, easily accessible, and convenient to the researcher or because the researcher has easy access to them.
A convenience sample is used to obtain a rapid and affordable sample with a smaller margin of error than probability sampling techniques that are more accurate but more difficult to execute.
The major disadvantage of using a convenience sample is that the sample obtained is non-representative of the population, and thus it is challenging to generalize the outcomes to the population as a whole.
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suppose that p x y (q) is $5000 million a year and the quantity of money (m) is $500 million. what is the velocity of circulation? responses
Suppose that p x y (q) is $5000 million a year and the quantity of money (m) is $500 million, the velocity of circulation is 10.
The equation of exchange relates the quantity of money, the velocity of circulation, the price level, and the level of real output as follows:
m x v = p x y
where:
m = quantity of money
v = velocity of circulation
p = price level
y = level of real output
We are given that p x y (q) is $5000 million a year and the quantity of money (m) is $500 million. Substituting these values into the equation, we get:
500 million x v = 5000 million
Solving for v, we get:
v = 5000 million / 500 million
v = 10
Therefore, the velocity of circulation is 10. This means that on average, each dollar of money is used to purchase goods and services 10 times per year.
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which of the following is not one of the strategies incorporated in the sarbanes-oxley act of 2002? group of answer choices attain greater board independence establish compliance programs establish ethics programs dictate maximum compensation levels
Out of the given strategies, the one that is not incorporated in the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 is to dictate maximum compensation levels. (D)
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act was passed to improve corporate governance and financial reporting in publicly traded companies in the United States. It was enacted after a series of corporate scandals, such as Enron and WorldCom, which resulted in significant financial losses for investors and the general public. (D)
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 included several strategies, such as attaining greater board independence, establishing compliance programs, and establishing ethics programs. These strategies aimed to improve corporate governance by increasing accountability, transparency, and ethical behavior among companies.
The act also established new regulations, such as the requirement for CEOs and CFOs to certify the accuracy of their companies' financial statements and the establishment of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB), which oversees the auditing of publicly traded companies.
However, the act does not dictate maximum compensation levels as one of its strategies, making it the correct answer.
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Complete question:
which of the following is not one of the strategies incorporated in the sarbanes-oxley act of 2002? group of answer choices
A) attain greater board independence
B) establish compliance programs
C) establish ethics programs
D) dictate maximum compensation levels
an example of which nontraditional work schedule allows an employee to choose to work a 7:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. shift rather than the more traditional 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. workday?
One example of a nontraditional work schedule that allows employees to choose to work a 7:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. shift rather than the more traditional 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. workday is the flextime work schedule.
What is a flextime work schedule?A flextime work schedule is a nontraditional work arrangement that allows employees to have a say in when they start and end their workday. Essentially, it allows employees to select their own working hours, as long as they complete the required number of hours per week. The flextime schedule is becoming more common in today's workplace as a way to allow employees to find a work-life balance that works best for them.
In a flextime schedule, an employee can choose to work from 7:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m., for example, instead of the typical 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. workday. This flexibility allows employees to tailor their work schedule around their personal life, such as family obligations or other commitments. It also reduces the stress and burnout associated with traditional work schedules, which can be especially beneficial to employees who are experiencing work-related stress or other mental health issues.
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True or False, Your big-screen HDTV would be listed as an asset on your personal balance sheet. However, the loan you took out to buy the TV would be listed as a personal liability.
Any asset on your personal balance sheet represents the resources owned by a person or organization. The loan you took out to buy the TV would be listed as a personal liability. So, the statement is true.
A balance sheet is a financial statement that provides a summary of a company's financial condition at a certain date. It includes assets, liabilities, and owner's equity, which are presented in a formal statement format.
A current liability is a debt that is due within one year, whereas a long-term liability is a debt that is due in more than one year.
A personal liability is a financial obligation that an individual owes to another individual or entity. Personal liabilities can include debts such as credit card debt, student loans, mortgages, and car loans.
These liabilities are typically listed on a personal balance sheet as either a current or long-term liability.
In summary, your big-screen HDTV would be listed as an asset on your personal balance sheet. However, the loan you took out to buy the TV would be listed as a personal liability. Thus it is true.
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Juan retired at age 68 and withdrew the entire $77,100 balance from an IRA to buy a sailboat. She opened this account in 1999. Which of the following statements is false?
A) If the account is a Roth IRA, none of the withdrawal is taxable.
B) If the account is a traditional IRA to which Juan made $32,000 nondeductible contributions, $45,100 of the withdrawal is taxable.
C) If the account is a traditional IRA funded entirely with deductible contributions, the entire $77,100 withdrawal is taxable.
D) None of the above is false.
The answer is D) None of the above is false. If the account is a Roth IRA, none of the withdrawal is taxable.
A Roth IRA is a personal retirement account that offers tax-free growth and tax-free withdrawals upon retirement. Roth IRA rules state that an account can be withdrawn at any time by him for five years, and if he is 59½ years of age or older, and he is not obligated to pay federal taxes.
If the account is a traditional IRA to which Juan made $32,000 nondeductible contributions, $45,100 of the withdrawal is taxable. And if the account is a traditional IRA funded entirely with deductible contributions, the entire $77,100 withdrawal is taxable.
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time remaining 1 hour 29 minutes 50 seconds01:29:50 item 1 time remaining 1 hour 29 minutes 50 seconds01:29:50 providing the power required to run production equipment is an example of a: multiple choice unit-level activity. batch-level activity. product-level activity. organization-sustaining activity
The time remaining 1 hour 29 minutes 50 seconds 01:29:50, and providing the power required to run production equipment is an example of a batch-level activity.
What are batch-level activities?Batch-level activities are operations that are performed on a particular group of items. It typically takes place after an order is placed and before the item is shipped to customers, depending on the company's business. One example of a batch-level activity is providing the power required to run production equipment.
The costs of batch-level activities are divided across the batch that is generated, so the more items that are made, the more batch-level activity costs are incurred.
For instance, a firm that produces chips may use a batch-level activity, such as setting up machines to make chips, that costs $5 per batch. If it produces 100 batches, it will cost $500, but if it produces 200 batches, it will cost $1,000. That is why, providing the power required to run production equipment is an example of a batch-level activity.
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when a united states corporation provides financial incentives to officials in foreign countries in order to avoid local taxes, that corporation has: blank . multiple choice question.
When a United States corporation provides financial incentives to officials in foreign countries in order to avoid local taxes, that corporation has engaged in bribery.
What is bribery?Bribery is a crime in which money, gifts, or other incentives are provided to influence the actions of a person in a position of trust, such as a public official, to gain an undue advantage.
Bribery is a white-collar crime, which means that it is usually committed by wealthy individuals or corporations in positions of authority. Financial rewards, such as financial incentives, are commonly used to persuade a public official to make decisions that favor the briber's interests.
To sum up, when a United States corporation provides financial incentives to officials in foreign countries in order to avoid local taxes, that corporation has engaged in bribery.
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disney is able to realize cost savings by sharing resources or transferring core competencies across its businesses. this is known as what? a. synergy b. market power c. economies of scope d. vertical integration
We know that Disney, as a company, can save costs by sharing resources through its businesses, this is an example of synergy. Alternative a. is the correct alternative.
Why is it important for a company to have synergy?It is crucial for companies to have synergy since it can significantly benefit their organizations, including reducing expenses and increasing productivity. Collaboration can also enable businesses to acquire knowledge, pool expertise, and save costs.
Through the sharing of assets, resources, and expertise, Disney can lower costs while increasing efficiency, as indicated in the question's context. This is why synergy is critical in business.
In conclusion, alternative a. is the correct alternative.
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true or false researchers should rely on past studies to estimate their proposed sample size.
The statement is False. Researchers should rely on past studies to estimate their proposed sample size.
Researchers are individuals who conduct scientific or academic investigations to advance knowledge in a particular field of study. They are trained professionals with specialized skills and expertise in their respective areas of research.
Researchers may work in various settings, such as universities, government institutions, private companies, or non-profit organizations. Their research may involve the development of new theories, the testing of existing hypotheses, or the exploration of new phenomena. They may use a wide range of methods and tools, such as surveys, experiments, statistical analysis, or computer simulations. The results of research conducted by researchers may be published in academic journals, presented at conferences, or used to inform policy decisions.
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when consumers change mobile phone and data service providers, they may be required to maintain service with the provider for a specified time period. this is an example of a:
This is an example of a contract provision known as an "early termination fee" or "ETF".
An early termination fee is a fee charged by service providers to customers who end their service contract before the specified end date.
This fee is typically used to cover the costs associated with the service provider setting up and maintaining the customer's account, as well as any subsidies or discounts provided to the customer when they signed up for the service.
In the case of mobile phone and data service providers, the early termination fee is often included as a contract provision when customers sign up for service.
The fee may vary depending on the length of the contract, the type of service being provided, and other factors. In general, customers who end their service contract before the end date will be required to pay the early termination fee, which can be a significant cost.
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Customers are naturally excited about make-to-stock, finish-to-order, make-to-order, andengineer-to-order. An operations and supply chain manager is far more interested in
the point in the supply chain at which the customization occurs
Customers are naturally excited about make-to-stock, finish-to-order, make-to-order, and engineer-to-order. An operations and supply chain manager is far more interested in the point in the supply chain at which the customization occurs.
The objective of supply chain management is to enhance customer service while reducing inventory levels and total costs. Supply chain management entails the management of the physical, informational, and monetary flows between suppliers and customers within a supply chain network.
Supply chain management is concerned with the following:
Inbound logistics and outbound logistics: handling, scheduling, and delivery of goods and services. It also entails the coordination of logistics between the supplier and the firm's logistics department.Purchasing: Procurement of required goods and services from suppliers.Production planning and control: scheduling, monitoring, and execution of the production process. These processes include the planning and control of inventory levels throughout the production process.Maintenance: Maintaining and preserving manufacturing and logistics assets at optimum levels of productivity and utilization.Quality management: Ensuring that goods and services meet customer requirements.Cost management: Assessing and managing costs throughout the supply chain to reduce overall supply chain expenses. It entails reducing costs while maintaining and improving the quality of goods and services.Customer relationship management: Interacting with customers to establish and maintain relationships. The operations and supply chain manager is far more interested in the point in the supply chain at which the customization occurs.Learn more about Supply Chain Management: https://brainly.com/question/15217906
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hiring quality employees enhances internal controls because they . multiple select question. will accept lower wages are most likely to act dishonestly are able to perform tasks as expected are able to rotate jobs
Hiring quality employees enhances internal controls because they (C) are able to perform tasks as expected and (D) are able to rotate jobs.
Quality employees are those who possess the necessary skills, experience, and work ethic to perform their jobs effectively and efficiently. When a company hires quality employees, it can expect them to follow established policies and procedures, work with integrity, and take ownership of their responsibilities. This, in turn, can help to improve internal controls and minimize the risk of fraud or errors.
Additionally, quality employees are often capable of rotating jobs within the company, which can help to improve internal controls by providing cross-training and ensuring that multiple employees are familiar with key processes and procedures.
Therefore, the correct answers to the multiple select question are:
C: Are able to perform tasks as expected
D: Are able to rotate jobs
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using a bid buying strategy and shopping around solely on the basis of ap price can be a successful strategy if:
Using a bid-buying strategy and shopping around solely on the basis of AP price can be a successful strategy if certain conditions are met such as a comprehensive understanding of market, including product or service being purchased, market trends and conditions, supplier reputation, etc.
The AP price is the average price that a company pays for a product or service. AP stands for "average price."This strategy can be successful if the buyer has a comprehensive understanding of the market and the product they want to purchase.
The buyer should also be aware of the market trends and conditions that impact the price. The buyer should be familiar with the market conditions and dynamics, such as supply and demand, availability of alternatives, and other factors that may influence the price.
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which of the following is not an operating activity? which of the following is not an operating activity? cash receipts for interest earned. cash collections from credit customers. cash payments for operating expenses. cash payments for dividends to stockholders.
The answer is "Cash receipts for interest earned." Operating activities are activities related to the core operations of a business such as cash collections from credit customers, cash payments for operating expenses, and cash payments for dividends to stockholders.
The cash payments for dividends to stockholders is not an operating activity. Operating activities are the everyday activities that occur in the course of a company's operations. These activities are those that a company undertakes to generate profit by selling goods and services and receiving payments from customers.
Operating activities include the following:
Cash collections from credit customers.Cash receipts for interest earned.Cash payments for operating expenses.Cash payments to suppliers for inventory and services rendered.Cash payments for income taxes and wages.Cash payments for dividends to stockholders are not part of operating activities.This is because dividend payments are a way for companies to distribute profits to shareholders. The payment of dividends to shareholders is not related to the everyday operations of the company, but rather to the company's financial performance.
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Which positioning base for a product or service focuses on a personality or type of consumer? a. Product class b. Attribute C. Emotion d. Product user
The positioning base, named, "product user" focuses on a personality or type of consumer. Option D is the correct answer.
Positioning is a crucial element in the marketing mix and refers to how a company creates an image or identity in the minds of consumers for its product or service. One such positioning base is product user, where the focus is on the personality or type of consumer. By identifying and targeting a specific group of consumers based on their characteristics, interests, or lifestyles, companies can tailor their marketing strategies to appeal to this group and differentiate themselves from competitors. This approach can help companies build brand loyalty and increase sales among their target market.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
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Which of the following provides an incentive for providers of care to offer more treatments because payment is dependent on the quantity rather than the quality of care?
A. Retrospective payment system
B. Prospective payment system
C. Fee-for-service payment system
D. Single-payer payment system
The payment system that incentivizes care providers to offer more treatments based on the quantity of care rather than the quality is called "the fee-for-service payment system". Thus, C is correct.
What is the fee-for-service payment system?A fee-for-service payment system is a method of reimbursement where healthcare providers are paid based on the services they provide. The fee-for-service (FFS) system rewards providers for quantity rather than quality.
The FFS system is a simple way for doctors and hospitals to be reimbursed, and it was widely used in the past. The problem is that it provides a strong financial incentive to perform more tests, procedures, and treatments, even when they are unnecessary or even harmful, which can lead to higher healthcare costs and lower quality of care.
In this case, as the provider is paid based on the number of services they provide, they will prefer to offer more treatments than needed. They do not have any motivation to provide quality services to the patient. As a result, the patient's well-being suffers as well, and this system is thus harmful. Thus, option C is correct.
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As a _____ I will facilitate the Sprint Retrospective at the end of every Sprint so that the entire team can provide feedback and improve for the next Sprint. Select one. A. Product Owner B. Team Member (developer/tester) C. Scrum Master
C. Scrum Master
The Scrum Master is responsible for facilitating the Sprint Retrospective at the end of every Sprint, which allows the team to reflect on their successes and failures from the previous Sprint. During the Sprint Retrospective, the Scrum Master should encourage the team to openly discuss what went well and what didn't, allowing them to identify areas for improvement.
The Scrum Master should ask questions to help the team focus on how the process can be improved, in order to ensure that the team is able to meet their goals in the next Sprint. The Scrum Master should also provide guidance and structure to ensure that the team is able to come to a conclusion that everyone can agree upon. This will ensure that the team is able to deliver quality results in the next Sprint.
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The minimum of the ATC cost curve occurs at a higher output level than the minimum of the average variable costs curve because the average ____ cost is lower than the average ____ cost and this pulls the average total cost down.
The minimum of the ATC cost curve occurs at a higher output level than the minimum of the average variable costs curve because the average fixed cost is lower than the average variable cost and this pulls the average total cost down.
The ATC (average total cost) curve represents the average cost of producing one unit of output, taking into account both fixed and variable costs. The AVC (average variable cost) curve represents the average cost of producing one unit of output, taking into account only variable costs.
When output increases, the average fixed cost (AFC) component of the ATC curve decreases since fixed costs are spread over a larger number of units.
However, the AVC curve will eventually begin to rise as output increases, due to diminishing marginal returns. This is because additional units of output require increasing amounts of variable inputs (e.g. labor, raw materials), causing the marginal cost of production to increase.
Therefore, the minimum point of the ATC curve occurs at a higher output level than the minimum point of the AVC curve, where the average variable cost is at its lowest point.
This is because as output increases, the decreasing average fixed cost pulls the ATC down, even as the increasing average variable cost pulls it up.
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Jason Inc. maintains a qualified profit-sharing plan for its employees. This year, Jason contributed $2,300 to Ms. Preston's profit-sharing account. Which of the following statements is true?-Jason can deduct the contribution, and Ms. Preston must include the contribution in her gross income-Jason can't deduct the contribution, but Ms. Preston must include the contribution in her gross income.-Jason can deduct the contribution, but Ms. Preston does not include the contribution in her gross income.-Jason can't deduct the contribution, and Ms. Preston does not include the contribution in her gross income.
Jason can't deduct the contribution, and Ms. Preston does not include the contribution in her gross income. The correct option is for Jason can deduct the contribution, and for Ms. Preston not to include the contribution in her gross income.
Jason Inc. maintains a qualified profit-sharing plan for its employees. This year, Jason contributed $2,300 to Ms. Preston's profit-sharing account.
Which of the following statements is true?
The correct option is for Jason can deduct the contribution, and for Ms. Preston not to include the contribution in her gross income.
What is a qualified profit-sharing plan?
A qualified profit-sharing plan is a retirement plan that allows employees to receive a portion of the company's earnings, depending on the plan's terms. The employer makes contributions to the plan's accounts and allocates the profits to the employees based on their compensation or other criteria specified in the plan document.
The option, Jason can deduct the contribution, and Ms. Preston does not include the contribution in her gross income, is correct. Jason Inc. may deduct contributions made to an employee's qualified profit-sharing plan on their taxes, according to the IRS. When the employee receives a distribution from the plan, the contribution is taxable, but it is not taxed as income when it is made.
The other options are incorrect: Jason can't deduct the contribution, but Ms. Preston must include the contribution in her gross income. (This is incorrect since Jason Inc. can deduct contributions made to a qualified profit-sharing plan)Jason can deduct the contribution, but Ms. Preston must include the contribution in her gross income.
Jason can't deduct the contribution, and Ms. Preston does not include the contribution in her gross income. (This is incorrect since Jason Inc. can deduct contributions made to a qualified profit-sharing plan)
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