Which function has the given properties below? The domain is the set of all real numbers. One x-intercept is (2 pi, 0). The amplitude is 4. The point (StartFraction pi over 2 EndFraction, negative 4 EndFraction) is on the graph. The y-intercept is (0, 0). Y = –4sin(x) y = –4cos(x) y = 4sin(x) y = 4cos(x).

Answer:

1/3

explanation:

so probability:

[tex]\qquad\qquad\huge\underline{{\sf Answer}}♨[/tex]

Number of Favorable outcomes (red)= 2

Total outcomes = 6

So, the probability of getting red is :

[tex]\qquad \sf  \dashrightarrow \: \dfrac{2}{6} [/tex]

[tex]\qquad \sf  \dashrightarrow \: \dfrac{1}{3} [/tex]

[tex]・ ．━━━━━━━†━━━━━━━━━．・[/tex]

Answer:

h= -2/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Simply simplify the equation:

2 = 4 + 7h

first get rid of the 4

2-4 = -2

so -2 = 7h

so h = -2/7

Check the picture below.

Step-by-step explanation:

2000 <= (178 + S) + S

remember, they needed to collect at least 2000 cans.

S = the number of cans Shane collected.

the number of cans Abha collected is 178 more than S (the number of cans Shane collected).

and from there we get

2000 <= 178 + 2S

1822 <= 2S

911 <= S

so, the solution set is

S >= 911

and

Abha >= 1089

Answer:

  (-6, -5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Reflection across the y-axis leaves the point on the same horizontal line, but with the sign of its x-coordinate changed.

  (x, y) ⇒ (-x, y) . . . . . reflection across the y-axis

  (6, -5) ⇒ (-6, -5)

The image point is (-6, -5).

Answer:

y= -x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

G1xG2= -1

G2= -1

-1 = (y-8)

-------

(x+2)

-1 (x+2)=y-8

-x-2=y-8

-y=x+2-8

y= -x+6

[tex]\tan x = \dfrac{\text{Opposite}}{\text{Adjacent}}\\\\\implies \tan x = \dfrac{12}{6}\\\\\implies \tan x = 2\\\\\implies x = \tan^{-1} (2)=63.4^\circ[/tex]

Answer:

x ≈ 63.4°

Step-by-step explanation:

using the tangent ratio in the right triangle.

tan x = [tex]\frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{12}{6}[/tex] = 2 , then

x = [tex]tan^{-1}[/tex] ( 2) ≈ 63.4° ( to the nearest tenth )

Answer:

f(1) = 12

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that f(x)=f(x-1)+2x+1

We are told that f(2) = 17

Use the first equation to calculate f(1).  Since f(2) is known and f(x-1) will become f(1) after f(2-1) is simplified to f(1).

17 = f(2-1)+2*2+1

f(2-1) = 17 - 5

f(1) = 12

Answer:

It will be over at 5:17 pm

Step-by-step explanation:

2:45 +32 would be 3:17, we add 2 hours it would be 5:17

Answer:

5:17 pm

Step-by-step explanation:

Since Brianna started watching a movie at 2:45 p.m and the movie is 2 hours and 32 minutes long

Thus,

2:45 + 2 and 32 Minutes

2 + 2 = 4

45 + 32 = 77 minutes

1 Hour = 60 Minutes

Thus, 77 - 60 =17

Hence, 4 + 1 = 5

Thus, the movie will be over at 5:17 Pm

~Lenvy~

The perimeter of the enlarged rectangle is 32 ft and the width of the larger rectangle is 3.6 ft.

The measure of the boundary of a plane or shape is called its perimeter. The perimeter of a plane or shape is the sum of all the sides.

A small rectangle has a length of 6.2 feet and width of 1.8 feet. The parameter of this triangle is,

[tex]P_s=6.2+1.8\\P_s=8\rm\; ft[/tex]

The small rectangle has a length of 6.2 and the larger rectangle has a length of 12.4 feet. Thus the scale factor of enlargement is,

[tex]r=\dfrac{12.4}{6.2}\\r=2[/tex]

The perimeter of the original rectangle is 16 feet and scale factor is 2. Thus, the perimeter of the enlarged rectangle is,

[tex]P_l=2\times16\\P_l=32\rm\; ft[/tex]

The small rectangle has width of 1.8 feet and scale factor is 2. Thus, the width of the larger rectangle is,

[tex]w_l=1.8\times2\\w_1=3.6\rm\; ft[/tex]

Hence, the perimeter of the enlarged rectangle is 32 ft and the width of the larger rectangle is 3.6 ft.

Learn more about the perimeter of plane here;

https://brainly.com/question/1662271

Answer:

For number 7 it was c which is the pink man

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Runner A won the race, Runner C took a break for 4 seconds, it took Bob 10.5 seconds because his green line hits the top at the same line as 10.5 seconds

Both procedures are correct. Because the end answer and the step-by-step explanation are right.

It is a step-by-step explanation of the equations. The procedure is important

It explains the sequence of actions and specifies what has to be done at each stage, frequently specifying when and by whom the procedure should be conducted.

The end answer for Keisha's solution is;

[tex]\rm cos \theta =[/tex]± [tex]\frac{15}{17}[/tex]

The end answer for David's solution is;

[tex]\rm cos \theta =[/tex]± [tex]\frac{15}{17}[/tex]

Hence both procedures are correct. Because the end answer and the step-by-step explanation are right.

To learn more about the procedure refer to the link;

https://brainly.com/question/14553685

Answer:

C: Both procedures are correct

Step-by-step explanation:

on edge :)

Answer:

[tex] \frac{ - \sqrt{3} }{2} [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we find the coterminal angle of

[tex] \frac{ - 8\pi}{3} [/tex]

to do that, first, convert this into degrees.

[tex] \frac{ - 8\pi}{3} \times \frac{180}{\pi} = - 480[/tex]

Know, continously add 360 until we get our first positve number,

[tex] - 480 + 360 = - 120[/tex]

[tex] - 120 + 360 = 240[/tex]

So our coterminal angle is 240.

We need to know sin (240), the y value of sin (240) will gives us our answer.

That answer is

[tex] \frac{ - \sqrt{3} }{2} [/tex]

Using the confidence interval, it is found that the correct option is:

There is convincing evidence because the entire interval is above 0.

It gives convincing evidence when 0 is not part of the confidence interval.

In this problem, the interval is (0.02, 0.38), which does not contain 0, hence the correct option is:

There is convincing evidence because the entire interval is above 0.

More can be learned about confidence intervals at https://brainly.com/question/25890103

Answer:

There is convincing evidence because the entire interval is above 0.

Step-by-step explanation: EDGE 2022

Answer:

x = 26.3

Step-by-step explanation:

There are three trigonometric rules that this question will apply to, they are:

[tex]Sin\theta\frac{opp}{hyp} Cos\theta\frac{adj}{hyp} Tan\theta\frac{opp}{adj}[/tex]

Where opp is the length of the side opposite to angle Φ, hyp is the hypotenuse of the triangle and adj is the length of a side adjacent to angle Φ.

In the provided picture, angle Φ has been provided alongside the hypotenuse with the opposite side length needing to be calculated. A trig function that includes all three of these must be used. The only one that does have all three is sin, ergo it is what we will use.

In the current equation form, the subject is incorrect and need to be changed so that it becomes the opposite side.

[tex]Sin\theta = \frac{opp}{hyp}\\ opp = sin\theta \cdot hyp[/tex]

Plug the known values in:

[tex]x = Sin(18\textdegree) \cdot 85\\x = 0.3090169 \cdot 85\\x = 26.266\\x = 26.3[/tex]

Hope this helps!

The histogram is an illustration of a discrete probability, and the probability that this tomato plant has a height greater than 82.5 cm is 0.40

The histogram is given such that the distribution of the plant heights is:

75 < h ≤ 85

To estimate the probability that this tomato plant has a height greater than 82.5 cm, we make use of the following formula

P(h >82.5) = P(85)

From the histogram, we have:

P(85) = 24/60

Evaluate

P(85) = 0.40

Substitute P(85) = 0.4 in P(h >82.5) = P(85)

P(h >82.5) = 0.40

Hence, the estimated probability is 0.40

Read more about probability at:

https://brainly.com/question/251701

S=0,5ha

4.06=0,5ha

ha=8.12

a=8.12/h

Answer: 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Y=5X because the slope is 5 and the Y-intercept is 0

Answer:

2/6 = 1/3

8/1 = 8

2/4 = 4/8

2/8 = 1/4

4/4 = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

2/2 = 1 and 6/2 = 3 so that would make the equivalent fraction 1/3

for 8/1 it is the same as just 8

2*2 = 4 and 4*2 = 8 so that would make the equivalent fraction 4/8

the same goes for 2/8 which is 1/4

and 4/4 is just 1  

PLEASE RATE!! I hope this helps!!

If you have any questions comment below

Answer:

2/6=1/3

8/1=8

2/4=4/8

2/8=1/4

4/4=1

Answer:

Ans is -1

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope the picture will help you..

The probability helps us to know the chances of an event occurring. The probability of event n occurring is 0.3.

The probability helps us to know the chances of an event occurring.

[tex]\rm{Probability=\dfrac{Desired\ Outcomes}{Total\ Number\ of\ outcomes\ possible}[/tex]

We know that for two independent events the probability of the two events occurring simultaneously is written as,

[tex]P(A \cap B) = P(A)\cdot P(B)[/tex]

Now, as we know the probability of event m occurring also we know the probability of both events occurring simultaneously, therefore, the probability of event n occurring can be written as,

[tex]P(A \cap B) = P(A)\cdot P(B)\\\\P(m \cap n) = P(m)\cdot P(n)\\\\0.138 = 0.46 \times P(n)\\\\P(n) = 0.3[/tex]

Hence, the probability of event n occurring is 0.3.

Learn more about Probability:

https://brainly.com/question/795909

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The answer is B.) The experimental probability of landing on red is 1/5.

Step-by-step explanation:

Have a great day

One can struggle to find the min and max in a binary search tree when the search algorithm is error prone.

It should be noted that a binary search simply means a searching algorithm for finding the elements position in an array.

In this case, one can struggle to find the min and max in a binary search tree when the search algorithm is error prone as this requires more stack space.

Learn more about binary search on:

https://brainly.com/question/21475482

One can struggle to find the min and max in a binary search tree when the search algorithm is error-prone as this requires more stack space.

A binary Search Tree is a node-based binary tree data structure that has the following properties:

In Binary Search Tree, we can find the maximum by traversing the right pointers until we reach the rightmost node. But in Binary Tree, we must visit every node to figure out the maximum. So the idea is to traverse the given tree and for every node return a maximum of 3 values.

1) Node’s data.

2) Maximum in node’s left subtree.

3) Maximum in node’s right subtree.

Below is the implementation of the above approach.

Hence, one can struggle to find the min and max in a binary search tree when the search algorithm is error-prone as this requires more stack space.

Learn more about binary search on:

brainly.com/question/21475482

#SPJ4

Answer: D

Step-by-step explanation:

The quadrilateral will be a rhombus. Then the correct option is D.

The definition of a quadrilateral is a planar form with four sides, four vertices, and four angles. Concave and convex are the two primary kinds.

Type of quadrilateral are:

The length of the side CD is given as,

CD² = (0 + 5a)² + (a - a)²

CD = 5a units

The length of the side BC is given as,

BC² = (- 5a + 9a)² + (a + 2a)²

BC² = (4a)² + (3a)²

BC² = 25a²

BC = 5a units

The length of the adjacent sides is equal. Then the quadrilateral will be a rhombus.

Thus, the correct option is D.

More about the quadrilateral link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/29934291

#SPJ7

The approximate area of the unshaded region under the standard normal curve is 0.86 the option third is correct.

It is given that the standard normal curve shows the shaded area in the curve.

It is required to find the approximate area of the unshaded region under the standard normal curve.

It is defined as the continuous distribution probability curve which is most likely symmetric around the mean. At Z=0, the probability is 50-50% on the Z curve. It is also called a bell-shaped curve.

In the curve showing the shaded region area between:

[tex]\rm P(1 < Z < 2)[/tex]

First, we calculate the shaded region area:

From the data given the value of Ф(1) = 0.8413.

P(Z<1)  = 0.8413  and

P(Z<2) =  0.9772

The area of the shaded region:

= P(Z<2) - P(Z<1)

=  0.9772 - 0.8413

= 0.1359

The area of the unshaded region:

= 1 - The area of the shaded region  ( because the curve is symmetric)

= 1 - 0.1359

= 0.8641 ≈ 0.86

Thus, the approximate area of the unshaded region under the standard normal curve is 0.86 the option third is correct.

Know more about the normal distribution here:

brainly.com/question/12421652

The probability density function of the time to failure of an electronic component in a copier (in hours) is [tex]\rm P(a < x < b) =e^\frac{-b}{1074}-e^\frac{-a}{1074}[/tex].

Probability Density Function is a function defining the probability of an outcome for a discrete random variable and is mathematically defined as the derivative of the distribution function.

The given function is;

[tex]\rm =\dfrac{ e^\frac{-x}{1074}}{1074}[/tex]

The probability density function of the time to failure of an electronic component in a copier (in hours) is given by;

[tex]\rm P(a < x < b) =\int\limits^a_b {p(x)} \, dx[/tex]

For the electronic component, the probability will be:

[tex]\rm P(a < x < b) =\int\limits^a_b {\rm \dfrac{ e^\frac{-x}{1074}}{1074}} \, dx\\\\ P(a < x < b) =\int\limits^a_b {\rm \dfrac{1074}{1074} e^\frac{-x}{1074}}} \, dx\\\\P(a < x < b) =e^\frac{-b}{1074}-e^\frac{-a}{1074}[/tex]

Hence, the probability density function of the time to failure of an electronic component in a copier (in hours) is [tex]\rm P(a < x < b) =e^\frac{-b}{1074}-e^\frac{-a}{1074}[/tex].

Learn more about probability here;

https://brainly.com/question/18162805

#SPJ4

Answer:

3pm

Step-by-step explanation:

so for this you want to work backwards, starting at 7:30pm because that's when they have dinner.

how i would solve this is I would add up all the amount of time they want to tour around San francisco

so 45 + 1hr15mins = 2hrs

2hrs +2hrs30mins= 4hrs30mins

so starting at 7:30 take away 4hrs 30mins

7:30 - 4hrs = 3:30pm

3:30 - 30 minutes = 3pm

They must start their tour at 3pm.

hope that helps :)

Answer:

The latest time Sue's family can start their tour but still make it home for dinner would be:
3:00 p.m

Step-by-step explanation:

Starting at 7:30pm because that's when they have dinner:
45min. + 1hr & 15mins = 2hours

2hours + 2hours & 30mins= 4hours & 30mins

Starting at 7:30 take away 4hrs 30mins:

7:30p.m - 4hrs = 3:30p.m

3:30 - 30 minutes = 3:00p.m

In conclusion, they must start their tour at 3:00 p.m to be able to reach dinner by 7:30 p.m (which is the latest time).




Have a great rest of your day
#TheWizzer

Answer:

54 in one bus

Step-by-step explanation:

96/2=48

48+6=54