Answer:
Oxidative production in photosynthesis involves the following:
1. Light absorption: Photosynthesis begins with the absorption of light energy by pigments, such as chlorophyll, in the chloroplasts of plant cells.
2. Electron transport: The absorbed light energy is used to excite electrons in chlorophyll molecules, which are then transported through a series of electron carriers in the thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast.
3. Generation of ATP and NADPH: As electrons move through the electron transport chain, they release energy that is used to pump protons across the thylakoid membrane, generating a proton gradient. The energy stored in this gradient is used to produce ATP and NADPH, which are used as energy and reducing power in the next stage of photosynthesis.
4. Water splitting: The electrons that are passed down the electron transport chain are replaced by electrons extracted from water molecules in a process called water splitting. This releases oxygen gas as a byproduct.
5. Carbon fixation: The ATP and NADPH generated during the light-dependent reactions are used in the light-independent reactions to fix carbon dioxide into organic molecules, such as sugars.
Overall, the oxidative production in photosynthesis involves the conversion of light energy into chemical energy stored in ATP and NADPH, which are then used in the production of organic molecules from carbon dioxide.
which is part of the theory of evolution by natural selection? a) animals have no variation among themselves.b) adaptations cannot be passed along to later generations
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Animals will have variation among themselves as the ones who are better suited will survive. Some will also have adaptations that help them adjust to a certain environment. Adaptations cannot be passed along to later generations through hereditary means but it is a process that occurs over many generations.
which name is given to the preserved remains or traces of dead organisms?A. FossilsB. Dead animal of the pastC. Organic relic of the pastD. Stuffed animal
Fossils is the name which is given to the preserved remains or traces of dead organisms therefore the correct option is A.
Fossils are the remains or traces of ancient organisms, such as plants and animals, that have been preserved in rocks or other materials. They're important for understanding the history of life on Earth. Fossils give information about the ancient organisms, and the surroundings in which they lived.
They also give substantiation for evolutionary connections between organisms, as well as suggestions to ancient surroundings. Studying Fossils gives us sapience into the history and helps us to more understand present- day life.
Hence the correct option is A.
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what enzyme moves along the template strand of dna synthesizing the mrna strand?
The enzyme that moves along the template strand of dna synthesizing the mRNA strand is RNA polymerases.
In molecular biology, an enzyme called RNA Polymerase, often known as RNA Pol or RNAP, synthesises RNA from a DNA template. With the aid of the enzyme helicase, which breaks down damaged DNA strands, RNA polymerase replicates the DNA sequence into an RNA sequence during the transcription process.
The RNA Pol participates in the identification of terminator areas, aids in the attachment and elongation of nucleotides, and not only transcribes DNA but also proofreads the transcribed RNA.
RNAP creates non-coding functional RNAs like tRNA, rRNA, and miRNA as well as functional mRNAs that code for proteins (translation). Prokaryotes, eukaryotes, and viruses all include the crucial enzyme RNA polymerase. Depending on the kind of organism, the RNAP complex might have different sizes and numbers of subunits.
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What are the steps of G protein coupled receptor signaling?
The G protein-coupled receptor signaling system refers to a family of proteins that are interconnected and constitute an intricate signaling system. This system's primary function is to facilitate the transfer of information from external and internal stimuli into the interior of the cell.
The following are the steps in the G protein-coupled receptor signaling.
Activation of the receptor by the ligand: The receptor is activated by the ligand, which binds to it. The receptor is activated in a specific manner and is changed as a result of ligand binding.
G protein activation: Once the receptor is activated, it triggers G protein activation. G proteins are located within the cell membrane and bind to the activated receptor. The G protein becomes activated and undergoes a conformational change as a result of its association with the activated receptor.
Generation of the second messenger: Following the activation of the G protein, second messengers are generated, which travel to different parts of the cell. Second messengers are intracellular signaling molecules that are activated by G proteins.
Second messenger activation of protein kinases: Second messengers activate a variety of protein kinases in the cytoplasm. The activated protein kinases initiate several signal transduction pathways that lead to the phosphorylation of specific target proteins.
Cellular response: Once the target protein is phosphorylated, it can affect cellular processes such as ion channel opening or closing, cell migration, proliferation, and differentiation.
Therefore, the G protein-coupled receptor signaling system is essential for maintaining normal cellular function. It is responsible for regulating a variety of cellular processes such as cell division, migration, and differentiation. It is also involved in many physiological functions such as hormone release, neurotransmitter release, and immune responses.
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which of the following is false regarding restriction enzymes? a. digest dna by recognizing specific sequences of nucleotides b. theorized to be produced by bacteria to protect against viral infection c. target sequences known as bacteriophages d. create fragments known as restriction fragments
The statement "target sequences known as bacteriophages" is false because restriction enzymes are used to cut the DNA to produce fragments. Thus, the correct option will be C.
What are restriction enzymes?Restriction enzymes are also known as restriction endonucleases, are enzymes that cleave DNA molecules at specific recognition sites within the DNA sequence. The target sequences are known as restriction sites, and the resulting fragments are known as restriction fragments. These enzymes recognize specific sequences of nucleotides and cut at that location, thereby digesting the DNA.
Restriction enzymes are the proteins which break DNA into smaller pieces by cutting them at specific locations. DNA restriction enzymes are very important for genetic engineering as they allow scientists to cut and paste DNA into different organisms.
Therefore, the correct option will be C.
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referring to the previous question. to demonstrate the response of several daphnia genotypes across a wide range of environments, luc de meester (1996) measured the change in phototactic behavior of daphnia sampled from lakes that contained different numbers of predatory fish. this is an example of a(n) study.
Referring to the previous question. to demonstrate the response of several daphnia genotypes across a wide range of environments, luc de meester (1996) measured the change in phototactic behavior of daphnia sampled from lakes that contained different numbers of predatory fish This is an example of a field study.
Luc de Meester (1996) measured the change in phototactic behavior of Daphnia to demonstrate the response of several Daphnia genotypes to a broad range of environments. It is an example of a field study. A field study is a scientific investigation performed in the natural setting, where the researcher maintains little control over the environment.
Field studies can be used to investigate how a variety of factors influence a particular phenomenon, such as animal behavior. Field studies are used to conduct scientific investigations in natural settings where the researcher has little control over the environment. Field studies are commonly used to investigate a range of issues, such as animal behavior and the effect of pollutants on the natural environment, among other things. Field studies, on the other hand, have a disadvantage in that the data obtained can be influenced by variables that the researcher cannot control.
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the main function of the hypothalamus is to direct the activity of the
The hypothalamus is a small but vital region of the brain located just above the brainstem. It serves as a key link between the nervous system and the endocrine system and plays a crucial role in regulating many physiological processes in the body.
One of the main functions of the hypothalamus is to direct the activity of the pituitary gland, a small gland located at the base of the brain that is often referred to as the "master gland". The hypothalamus produces several hormones that control the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.
For example, the hypothalamus produces corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH, in turn, stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol, a hormone that is important for the body's stress response.
The hypothalamus also produces gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). FSH and LH are important for the regulation of reproductive processes, including the menstrual cycle in females and testosterone production in males.
In addition to its role in regulating the pituitary gland, the hypothalamus is also involved in the regulation of many other physiological processes, including body temperature, thirst, hunger, and sleep.
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The ligament that stabilizes and encircles the head of the radius is the:
-Annular ligament
-Quadrate ligament
-Lateral collateral ligament
-Medial collateral ligament
The ligament that stabilizes and encircles the head of the radius is the annular ligament. The annular ligament is a strong band of fibers that encircles the head of the radius bone, holding it in place within the elbow joint. So the correct option is A.
This ligament attaches to the ulna bone and forms a ring-shaped structure around the head of the radius. It helps to stabilize the joint and allows for smooth movement of the radius as it rotates during forearm movements.
The quadrate ligament is another ligament in the elbow joint that attaches the neck of the radius bone to the ulna bone, providing additional stability to the joint. The lateral collateral ligament and medial collateral ligament are ligaments in the knee joint that provide stability to the sides of the knee.
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you are studying a slide of body tissue, but the label has rubbed off. you see a single layer of closely packed cells that are long and narrow in structure. this tissue is most likely to be:
The tissue is most likely to be epithelial tissue because it has a single layer of closely packed cells.
What is body tissue?Body tissues are a group of cells that perform a particular function in an organism's body. The four major types of body tissues are epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue, and nervous tissue.
Epithelial tissue is a type of tissue that covers the body's surfaces, organs, and cavities. It lines the body's internal surfaces, including the organs, blood vessels, and glands. It's made up of tightly packed cells, which can be one layer or multiple layers deep, depending on the location and function of the tissue.
Epithelial tissue performs several functions, which are as follows: It acts as a protective barrier by lining the surfaces of organs and body cavities. It aids in the exchange of materials between the external environment and the organism. It produces and secretes hormones and enzymes. It absorbs nutrients from the digestive tract. It aids in the excretion of waste from the body.
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what is the name of the tapering inferior end of the spinal cord
The conus medullaris, which wraps around the first or second lumbar vertebra and can sometimes be lower, is the spinal cord's most tapering extremity.
The official "end" of the spinal cord is the tapering inferior end of the cord, which is known as the conus medullaris and is typically located at the level of the first lumbar vertebra.
In an average adult, the spinal cord tapers and terminates between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. The conus medullaris, which is the most distal bulbous part of the spinal cord, continues as the filum terminals at its tapering end.
The conus medullaris is the tightening distal finish of the spinal string and comprises the sacral (S2-S5) and coccygeal spinal rope fragments. In adults, the conus medullaris is typically located around the L1 vertebra, but it can also be as low as the L3 vertebra or as high as the T12 vertebra.
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How would you classify a prokaryote that lives in hot springs that have a low pH at Yellowstone National Park?A. Extreme HalophilesB. ChemoautotrophC. ThermoacidophileD. Methanogen
The prokaryote that lives in hot springs that have a low pH at Yellowstone National Park would be classified as a Thermoacidophile (option C).
Thermoacidophiles are microorganisms that thrive in environments with high temperatures and low pH (acidic conditions). They are adapted to live in extreme environments, such as hot springs, geysers, and hydrothermal vents, where temperatures can exceed 80°C and pH can be as low as 1.0.
In Yellowstone National Park, there are many hot springs that are acidic and have high temperatures, making it an ideal environment for thermoacidophilic microorganisms. These microorganisms are able to survive and carry out metabolic processes, such as energy production, in these extreme conditions. Extreme Halophiles (option A) are microorganisms that thrive in environments with high salt concentrations.
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for genotype-by-environment interactions, they are usually displayed in the form of phenotypic plasticity. explain how selection works with respect to phenotypic plasticity in a population, what is/is not being selected for, and how it is perceived.
Selection works with respect to phenotypic plasticity in a population in the sense that phenotypic plasticity is not heritable, it is therefore not subject to selection. Rather, the traits that are expressed due to plasticity are the ones that are subject to selection.
The trait that is selected for is the one that provides the highest fitness to the organism, in other words, the one that makes it more successful at reproducing. The trait that is not being selected for is the plasticity itself, as this trait is not heritable and cannot be passed on to future generations.
Phenotypic plasticity is only important to selection in that it allows for greater variation and adaptability in a population. How phenotypic plasticity is perceived is that it is seen as a way for organisms to cope with varying environments without having to rely on genetic mutations or fixed traits.
Instead, they are able to adjust their phenotype to match their environment, allowing them to better survive and reproduce. This ability is important for the long-term survival of a population, as it allows them to adapt to changing conditions without having to wait for generations of genetic change.
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Why is DNA replication considered semiconservative? Initiator proteins bind to replication origins and disrupt hydrogen bonds between the two DNA strands being copied. What contributes to the relative ease of strand separation by initiator proteins?
DNA replication is considered semiconservative because each of the two daughter strands of DNA created after replication contain one of the two strands of the original DNA molecule. Initiator proteins bind to replication origins and disrupt hydrogen bonds between the two DNA strands being copied.
DNA replication is considered semiconservative because during the replication process, each DNA molecule consists of one old and one new strand. This ensures that the new DNA molecules contain one strand that was conserved from the parent cell.The initiator proteins present in the DNA replication process are responsible for binding to the replication origins and disrupting hydrogen bonds between the two DNA strands being copied.
The relative ease of strand separation is contributed by the fact that initiator proteins are ATPase enzymes that use the energy from ATP hydrolysis to unwind and separate the two strands. The ATPase activity of initiator proteins helps to disrupt the hydrogen bonds between the two strands being copied, making it easier to separate the strands.Above all, initiator proteins are specialized proteins that bind to DNA in order to mark the origin of replication for the start of the DNA replication process.
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Inside the chloroplast, where are organic molecules made?A. stromaB. thylakoid membraneC. between the outer and inner membranesD. inside the thylakoid
The plant's leaves hold sucrose and myriad other organic molecules as a result of the carbon-fixation retorts, which begin in the stroma of the chloroplast and resume in the cytosol. The correct answer is (A) stroma.
The sucrose is traded to different tissues as a wellspring of both natural particles and energy for development.
The energy-storing chemicals adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) are produced when chlorophyll molecules in chloroplasts absorb sunlight and distribute the additional energy to molecular partners.
While removing oxygen from the cell's water, the photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll converts and stores solar energy in the energy-storage molecules ATP and NADPH. The ATP and NADPH are then used to make natural particles from carbon dioxide in a cycle known as the Calvin cycle.
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_________ separates the third ventricle of the brain from the lateral ventricle.
The thin membrane called septum pellucidum separates the third ventricle of the brain from the lateral ventricle.
Septum pellucidum is a thin membrane that is located in the middle of the brain, separating the two cerebral hemispheres. It forms the medial wall of the lateral ventricles, which are the two largest cavities in the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
The septum pellucidum contains two thin layers of white matter, called the septum pellucidum. The septum pellucidum is the primary component of the medial boundary of the lateral ventricles, forming the frontal and parietal horns, which extend to the front and back of the brain, respectively.
The septum pellucidum is situated above the corpus callosum, which is a band of nerve fibers that connects the two hemispheres of the brain. It is situated beneath the fornix, which is a white matter structure involved in the memory.The third ventricle of the brain is a midline cavity that lies between the left and right thalami.
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in mendel's experiments, a true-breeding pea plant with yellow seeds (yy) was mated with a true-breeding pea plant with green seeds (yy). what was the genotypic ratio of the f1 generation? multiple choice question. 25% yy, 50% yy, 25% yy 100% yy, 0% yy, 0% yy 0% yy, 100% yy, 0% yy 50% yy, 25% yy, 25% yy
The genotypic ratio of the F1 generation in Mendel's experiment with a true-breeding pea plant with yellow seeds (yy) and a true-breeding pea plant with green seeds (yy) is 100% Yy (heterozygous). Therefore, the correct answer is "0% yy, 100% Yy, 0% yy".
What is Genotype?
Genotype refers to the genetic makeup of an individual, which determines its inherited traits and characteristics. It is the set of genes present in the DNA of an organism that is responsible for its physical appearance, behavior, and other traits. Genotype is inherited from the parents and can be expressed or remain hidden based on the interaction between the genes and the environment. The genotype is often represented using letters, where each letter stands for a specific gene variant, or allele.
In Mendel's experiment, the true-breeding pea plant with yellow seeds (yy) is homozygous for the allele that codes for yellow seed color, meaning that it can only pass on the yellow allele to its offspring. Similarly, the true-breeding pea plant with green seeds (yy) is also homozygous for the allele that codes for green seed color, meaning that it can only pass on the green allele to its offspring.
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Calculate the amount of protein in 200ml low fat milk. Show calculations
The amount of protein in 200ml low-fat milk would be 6.97 g., approximately 7 g.
According to the WHO, dairy is a substantial source of superior protein and has a high level of edibility. Protein is essential for constructing and maintaining muscle mass and protecting bone tissue. Milk includes measurements of the many essential amino acids significantly in excess of international criteria due to the high nature of milk proteins (casein and whey).
So, by increasing the Kjeldahl N fixation = 6.38 (1 /15.67),
the milk protein emphasis is established in this manner.
The Kjeldahl method may not accurately reflect actual protein content or the assembling value of milk since the NPN concentration of milk can vary dramatically between groups.
A 200 ml glass of milk is thought to contain 6.97 g, or about 7 g, of protein. 3.5 g of protein are present in 100 ml of milk, for example. Hence, the protein level would be computed =
3.52 * 2 = 7 g for 200ml of low-fat milk.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal pancreatic cancer. is called
A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal pancreatic cancer. is called palliative care who focuses on providing comfort and relief from pain and other symptoms of the disease.
A nurse who works in the palliative care unit is responsible for providing comfort and pain relief to patients who are in their last phase of life. Patients who have a terminal illness require palliative care because they cannot be cured.
Palliative care is an approach that involves a combination of medications, therapies, and emotional support. Its primary aim is to provide comfort, maintain the patient's dignity and relieve their symptoms.
The primary objective of the palliative care nurse is to assist the patient in having the highest quality of life possible while coping with a life-limiting condition.
They are also responsible for helping patients and their families in developing an end-of-life care plan. Palliative care nurses frequently collaborate with social workers, chaplains, and other healthcare professionals to create a holistic approach to care.
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Three patients in an intensive care unit are examined by a doctor. One patient has brain damage from a severe stroke. Another had a heart attack that severely damaged their heart muscle. The last patient has a disease that attacks and breaks down connective tissue in the body. All three patients have stabilized and will survive, but only one will have a full functional recovery through regeneration. Which one and why?
Based on the information provided, it is most likely that the patient with a disease that attacks and breaks down connective tissue in the body will have a full functional recovery through regeneration.
The reason for this is that the body has the ability to produce new connective tissue to replace the damaged tissue. This process is known as regeneration and is a natural response of the body to injury or disease. In contrast, brain and heart tissue have limited regenerative abilities, meaning that damage to these organs is often permanent and can lead to long-term disability.
Therefore, the patient with connective tissue disease has the greatest potential for a full functional recovery, as the body can produce new tissue to replace the damaged tissue. However, the extent of the recovery will depend on the severity of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.
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proteins are made by reactions, in which water is removed as amino acids are linked together to form polypeptides.
Proteins are macromolecules composed of one or more polypeptide chains, which are made up of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds.
The process of forming a peptide bond between two amino acids involves a condensation reaction, also known as a dehydration synthesis reaction, in which a molecule of water is removed from the reactants. Specifically, the carboxyl group (-COOH) of one amino acid reacts with the amino group (-NH2) of another amino acid, releasing a molecule of water and forming a peptide bond (-CO-NH-) between the two amino acids.
This process repeats, forming a long chain of amino acids that folds into a specific three-dimensional structure, dictated by the sequence of amino acids in the chain.
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What do you think Madison needs to include in the fire prevention training plan? OSHA-10
It is required that a written fire prevention strategy be maintained on-site and made available to staff for review. The strategy may, however, be explained orally to employees if the firm has fewer than 10 workers.
What is fire prevention training plan?Your fire prevention strategy must at the very least include a list of all significant fire hazards, safe handling and storage practises for hazardous items, potential ignition sources and their control, and the kind of fire protection apparatus required to deal with each major hazard. These five NFPA-endorsed fire prevention tactics—code compliance, training, readiness, messaging, and a strong commitment in fire safety and prevention—are effective ways to safeguard your team and the security of commercial structures. The Basic Principles: Prevention, Detection and Communication, Occupant Protection, Containment and Extinguishment—basic fire safety principles that may be consistently applied globally—have been taught to us over time as a means of preventing fire occurrences and controlling their effects.To learn more about fire prevention training plan, refer to:
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T/F: cell division in both bacterial and eukaryotic cells produces genetically cells.
True. Prokaryotes reproduce via binary fission, which is a rather simple process. Each copy of a single chromosome attaches to a different location on the cell membrane when it multiplies.
Following this, the cell membrane begins to invade, ultimately dividing into two genetically identical bacteria. Similar methods are used to replicate mitochondria in eukaryotic cells, although the process is more challenging overall.
Mitosis, which involves dividing into two genetically identical cells, is the process by which eukaryotic cells replicate themselves. Mitosis is the process by which new cells are produced during the embryonic development and after birth, as well as by which cells that have died or shed are replaced. In humans, some cells can keep dividing even after death. These "stem cells" multiply through mitosis to produce daughter cells.
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What is the benefit of using a differential stain versus a simple or negative stain
Differential staining techniques, such as Gram staining or acid-fast staining, allow for the differentiation of different types of microorganisms based on differences in their cell wall composition or other characteristics.
What is differential stain?A differential stain is a type of staining technique used in microbiology to distinguish between different types of microorganisms or structures within a microorganism. It involves the use of specific dyes and multiple steps to differentiate between the cells or structures being studied. The most commonly used differential stain is the Gram stain, which differentiates between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria based on the structure of their cell walls. Other examples of differential stains include acid-fast stains, which differentiate acid-fast bacteria from non-acid-fast bacteria, and spore stains, which differentiate bacterial spores from vegetative cells. Differential staining allows for more precise identification and classification of microorganisms, which can be useful in fields such as medical diagnosis and microbiology research.
Here,
This provides important information about the nature of the microorganisms present in a sample, such as their morphology, Gram stain reaction, and possible identification. In contrast, simple or negative stains do not provide this level of differentiation or identification. Therefore, the benefit of using a differential stain is that it allows for a more detailed and specific analysis of the microorganisms present in a sample, which can be crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment in fields such as medicine and microbiology.
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Which natural disaster starts over the ocean, pushes storm surges onto shore, and causes flooding?
Flood
Tornado
Hurricane
Wildfire
Concentric contractions occur when
A. the muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
B. the tension and length of the muscle remain constant during a contraction.
C. tension in a muscle is maintained while the muscle increases in length.
D. the muscle produces tension while the length of the muscle increases.
E. isometric contractions occur.
Concentric contractions occur when the muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. Thus, the correct option will be A.
What are Concentric Contractions?Concentric contraction is the shortening of the muscles while the tension remains the same. The tension is produced when the fibers of the muscles pull together, which results in shortening the muscle. An example of a concentric contraction is the upward motion in a bicep curl, and it is also referred to as a positive contraction. This means that the muscle is contracting while shortening.
When the muscle shortens, the distance between the muscle’s origin and insertion points decreases. This creates a movement around a joint, which is known as concentric motion. This type of contraction also occurs when you lift weights. Lifting weights involves the shortening of muscles around the joints to raise the weight. When you perform bicep curls, the muscles in the bicep shorten, allowing you to lift the weight.
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what type of sensory memory is categorized as auditory memory?
The type of sensory memory that is categorized as auditory memory is called echoic memory.
Echoic memory refers to the brief retention of auditory information that is heard for a few seconds after the sound has ended. This memory system allows the brain to process and make sense of sounds, such as speech or music, and to remember them briefly even after they are no longer present.
The duration of echoic memory can be up to 10 seconds, depending on the complexity of the auditory information and the level of attention paid to it. Echoic memory is a crucial component of language processing and is important for communication and comprehension.
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Definition of ADAPTATION:
A. A How energy moves in a food web.
B. A feature or behavior that helps an animal survive in its environment.
C. A neutral trait that has no direct effect on survival in any environment.
Answer:
B. A feature or behavior that helps an animal survive in its environment.
The ion channel illustrated below would most likely be found in the plasma membrane of the (A) dendrite (B) cell body (C) axon (D) A and B (E) B and C
The ion channel would most likely be found in the plasma membrane of the dendrite.
Thus, the correct option is A.
What is an ion channel?Аn ion chаnnel is а speciаlized pore in the cell membrаne thаt enаbles the rаpid diffusion of а specific ion or smаll molecule аcross the membrаne.
The ion chаnnel, which is shown in the given picture, would most likely be found in the plаsmа membrаne of the dendrite.The dendrite is а pаrt of а neuron thаt receives signаls from other neurons or sensory stimuli. The cell body contаins the nucleus аnd other orgаnelles thаt аre responsible for the metаbolic аnd regulаtory functions of the neuron.
Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can be seen in the Attachment.
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Biological evolution can occur through all of these excepta) competitionb)fossilizationc)variation d)adaptation
Biological evolution can occur through all of the given options except: (b) fossilization.
Evolution is the process of slow and gradual changes that occur in a population or species over a long course of time, nearly numerous generations. The evolution occurs for the organisms to survive better in their surroundings.
Fossilization is the process through which the dead and decaying parts of the living organisms (both plants and animals) bury deep down on the earth and forms casts, impressions or preserved remains. They are generally termed as fossils. The fossils cannot undergo evolution because it is the phenomenon that happens in living organisms.
Therefore the correct answer is option b.
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Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue?
a) Bone.
b) Blood.
c) Cartilage.
d) Tendons.
e) Epidermis.