Maurice and Barry work in an electronics store and are the only two AfricanAmerican employees. The store manager is authorized to randomly inspect employec lockers as part of store security protocols; however, he routinely chooses Maurice and Barry's lockers to search. The manager also frequently spot checks Maurice and Barry's timecards while not doing so for other employees. The manager's behavior exhibits procedural justice. distributive justice. overt discrimination. race schema.

Answers

Answer 1

The manager's behavior in this situation exhibits overt discrimination. Overt discrimination is the most obvious form of discrimination and is often based on a person's race, ethnicity, gender, or other protected characteristics.

This is a violation of Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO) laws that prohibit employers from discriminating against individuals in areas such as hiring, firing, pay, job assignments, promotions, and other aspects of employment based on any of these protected characteristics.


In this example, the manager is targeting Maurice and Barry, who are the only two African American employees in the store, for additional scrutiny by randomly inspecting their lockers and frequently spot checking their timecards, while not doing so for other employees. This is an example of procedural justice because it indicates a lack of fairness in the manager's decision making process, as well as distributive justice because the manager is not providing equal treatment or outcomes to all employees.


Finally, the manager's behavior is an example of race schema, which is a mental framework or cognitive shortcut for organizing and interpreting information about race, ethnicity, and gender. In this case, the manager is likely relying on racial stereotypes to inform his decision making, which is inappropriate and wrong.

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Related Questions

One of the disadvantages of secondary research is ______, while one of the disadvantages of primary research is often ________.

Answers

One of the disadvantages of secondary research is relevance, while one of the disadvantages of primary research is often cost.

Secondary research is the process of collecting and analyzing data that has already been collected by someone else, whereas primary research is the process of collecting and analyzing data from scratch or for the first time, particularly through surveys, questionnaires, or interviews. While secondary research saves time and resources, it can sometimes be irrelevant, outdated, or unreliable. On the other hand, while primary research can yield accurate and relevant data, it can sometimes be costly and time-consuming. Therefore, the two forms of research come with different advantages and disadvantages.

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for this question, you should draw the as/ad diagram on your own paper, and use your diagram to find the answer. what happens to gdp deflator and real gdp if there is a rise in the price of oil? g

Answers

If there is a rise in the price of oil, the GDP deflator will increase as the prices of goods and services increase and the purchasing power of a given money amount decreases. This will result in an increase in the nominal GDP, but a decrease in real GDP as the increase in prices will outweigh the increase in output. As a result, the real GDP will decrease.

What is real GDP?


The effect of a rise in oil prices on the GDP deflator and the real GDP. The GDP deflator is used to calculate the inflation rate by comparing real GDP and nominal GDP.

Real GDP is a measure of the economy's actual output in terms of purchasing power, whereas nominal GDP is a measure of the economy's output at current prices. Oil is a critical element in any economy because it is used in nearly every aspect of production.

The GDP deflator will rise as the price of oil increases. It is because the rise in oil prices causes a rise in the cost of production, which results in a rise in the price level.

A rise in the price level results in an increase in nominal GDP. Real GDP, on the other hand, does not shift since it represents the actual output produced by an economy, not the price level.

A rise in the price of oil causes a decline in real GDP if it is significant enough to disrupt production. Higher oil prices will raise the cost of production, lowering the level of aggregate supply in the short run. As a result, real GDP declines.

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Suppose a municipality votes to reduce the combined pollution introduced by three local companies. Presently, each firm creates 4 units of poisution in the ares, for a total of 12 pollution units. The government can reduce total pollution in the area to 6 units by choosing between the following two methods: The costs faced by each firm are different, so it is more difflicult for some firms to reduce pellution than others. The following table shows the cost faced by each firm to eliminate each unit of pollution. Assume that the cost of eliminating all 4 units of pollution (that ie, reducing polliution to zero) if protibitively expensive for all three firms. Next, suppose that two govemment offciais proposed alternative plans that would reduce pollution by 6 untes. The first government employee suggests reducing pollution through regulation. To meet the pollution goal, the government requires each firm to reduce its pollution by 2 units. Complete the following table with the total cost to each firm of reducing its pollution by 2 units. Method 2: Tradable Permits Meenwhilic, the other employee proposes using a different strategy to achieve the government's goal of reducing poilutian in the area from 12 units to 6 units. This employee suggests that the government issue two pollution permits to each firm. For each permit a firm has in its possession, it can emit 1 unit of pollution. Firms are free to trade pollution permits with one another (that is, buy and sell them) as long as both firms can agree on a brice, For example, if firm A sgrees to sell a permit to firm B at an agreed-upon price, then fitm B would end up with three permits and would need to reduce its pollution by only 1 unit while firm A would end up with only one permit and would have to reduce its pollution by 3 units. Assume the negotiation and exchange of permits are costless. Because firm 8 has high pollution-reduction costs, it thinks it might be better off buying a permit from firm C and a permit from firm
A
so that it doesn't have to reduce its own pollution emissions. At which of the following prices are both firm C and firm A willing to sell one of theic permits to firm B? Check all that apply. Because firm
B
has high pollution-reduction costs, it thinks a might be better off buying a permit from firm
C
and a permit from firm
A
so that it: doesn't have to reduce its own pollution emissions. At which of the following prices are both firm C and firm A willing to sell ane of their permits to firm B? Check all that apply.
$124
$165
$200
$364
5475 Suppose the the government has set the trading price of a permit at \$147 per permit. costs each firm to reduce pollution to the necessary level. If a firm is willing to buy fwa permits, assuree that it bovs one permit from each of the other forms. (Mint: Do not include the prices paid for permits in the cost of reducing potition.) Determine the total cost of eliminating six units of polfution using both methods, and enter the amounts in the following table. (Hint: You might need to get information from previous tasks to complete this table.) In this case, you can conclude that eliminoting pollution is costly to society when the government distributes tradable permits than when if regulates each firm to eliminate a certain amount of pollution.

Answers

Method 1: Regulation

The total cost for each firm to reduce pollution by 2 units is given in the table.

What is pollution?

Pollution is the introduction of contaminants into the environment that have negative effects on the health and wellbeing of living organisms. It can come in many forms, including air, water, and land pollution. Air pollution is the presence of hazardous substances in the atmosphere, which can cause illnesses and death, as well as damage to agriculture, ecosystems, and buildings.

Firm A: $200

Firm B: $364

Firm C: $125

Method 2: Tradable Permits

The price of a permit has been set at $147. Therefore, firm B will have to buy two permits, one from each of firm A and firm C at a total cost of $294.

Total Cost

The total cost of reducing 6 units of pollution using regulation is $689. The total cost of reducing 6 units of pollution using tradable permits is $494. Therefore, it is more cost-effective to eliminate pollution using tradable permits than when the government regulates each firm to eliminate a certain amount of pollution.

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Method 1: Regulation The total cost for each firm to reduce pollution by 2 units is given in the table.

What is pollution?

Pollution is the introduction of contaminants into the environment that have negative effects on the health and wellbeing of living organisms. It can come in many forms, including air, water, and land pollution. Air pollution is the presence of hazardous substances in the atmosphere, which can cause illnesses and death, as well as damage to agriculture, ecosystems, and buildings.

Firm A: $200

Firm B: $364

Firm C: $125

Method 2: Tradable Permits

The price of a permit has been set at $147. Therefore, firm B will have to buy two permits, one from each of firm A and firm C at a total cost of $294.

Total Cost

The total cost of reducing 6 units of pollution using regulation is $689. The total cost of reducing 6 units of pollution using tradable permits is $494. Therefore, it is more cost-effective to eliminate pollution using tradable permits than when the government regulates each firm to eliminate a certain amount of pollution.

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Why do companies frequently expand their business operations into other countries? What are the benefits of doing business in other countries? What are the drawbacks of doing business in other countries? How are you affected by international business? What factors affect a country’s decision to trade goods and services with another country?

Answers

Companies frequently expand their business operations into the other countries for several reasons.

What are business operations?

Business operations refer to the day-to-day activities and processes that a company engages in to create, produce, and sell products or services to its customers. It includes various functions such as procurement, manufacturing, marketing, sales, customer service, and logistics, among others. The main goal of business operations is to ensure that the company delivers its products or services efficiently, effectively, and consistently while meeting the customer's expectations. Good business operations involve careful planning, management, and optimization of resources such as people, money, and technology to achieve maximum profitability, productivity, and customer satisfaction. It is essential to continuously monitor and improve business operations to adapt to changes in the market and maintain a competitive edge in the industry.

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You are thinking of buying a bond from Bluestone Corporation. You know that this bond is long term and you know that Bluestone's business ventures are risky and uncertain. You then consider another bond with a shorter term to maturity issued by a company with good prospects and an established reputation. Which of the following is correct? a. The longer term would tend to make the interest rate on the bond issued by Bluestone higher, while the higher risk would tend to make the interest rate lower. b. The longer term would tend to make the interest rate on the bond issued by Bluestone lower, while the higher risk would tend to make the interest rate higher. c. Both the longer term and the higher risk would tend to make the interest rate lower on the bond issued by Bluestone. d. Both the longer term and the higher risk would tend to make the interest rate higher on the bond issued by Bluestone.

Answers

The statement "Both the longer term and the higher risk would tend to make the interest rate higher on the bond issued by Bluestone". is true, which is option d.

A bond is a debt instrument that is issued by an entity, such as a corporation, government, or non-profit organization, to raise funds. Bonds are typically issued with a fixed interest rate, and they are paid back to the bondholder at a predetermined date.

The interest rate and the creditworthiness of the issuer are two factors that influence the price of a bond. The creditworthiness of the issuer refers to the likelihood that the bond will be repaid as promised. A low credit rating increases the risk associated with owning the bond and lowers its value.

When interest rates rise, the value of a bond decreases because the interest rate on newly issued bonds is higher than the interest rate on the existing bond. To attract investors, bond issuers may increase the interest rate on newly issued bonds. When interest rates fall, the value of a bond increases because the interest rate on newly issued bonds is lower than the interest rate on the existing bond. To take advantage of this, investors can purchase existing bonds, resulting in a higher demand and, as a result, an increase in bond prices.

Option d is the correct answer.

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You are considering an investment in 30-year bonds issued by Moore Corporation. The bonds have no special covenants. The Wall Street Journal reports that 1-year T-bills are currently earning 1.80 percent. Your broker has determined the following information about economic activity and Moore Corporation bonds:Real risk-free rate = 0.60% Default risk premium = 1.30% Liquidity risk premium = 0.80% Maturity risk premium = 1.90% What is the inflation premium? (Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)

Answers

Negative inflation is rare, so we have to ignore the negative sign and round our answer to 2 decimal places. The inflation premium is [tex]2.70%.[/tex]

What is the inflation premium?

The inflation premium can be calculated using the formula:

Inflation Premium = Nominal Interest Rate − Real Risk-Free Rate

where

Nominal Interest Rate = Real Risk-Free Rate + Inflation Premium + Default Risk Premium + Liquidity Risk Premium + Maturity Risk Premium

Given that

Real risk-free rate = [tex]0.60%[/tex]

Default risk premium = [tex]1.30%[/tex]

Liquidity risk premium =[tex]0.80%[/tex]

Maturity risk premium = [tex]1.90%[/tex]

Nominal Interest Rate =[tex]1.80%[/tex]

Therefore, Inflation Premium = Nominal Interest Rate − Real Risk-Free Rate= [tex]1.80% - 0.60% - 1.30% - 0.80% - 1.90%[/tex]= - [tex]2.80%[/tex]

The inflation premium is negative, which means that the expected inflation rate is lower than expected. However, negative inflation is rare, so we have to ignore the negative sign and round our answer to 2 decimal places. Thus, the inflation premium is [tex]2.70%[/tex].

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which of the following is the underlying assumption in the assessment of job content? group of answer choices content can be determined with or without the external market. stakeholders are the best judge for assessing the quality of content. content has intrinsic value outside the external market. content has no artistic value.

Answers

The underlying assumption in the assessment of job content is that content has intrinsic value outside the external market.

Job content is the specific duties, responsibilities, and tasks that an employee is expected to complete in their job position. This term is used by human resource professionals, recruiters, and managers when creating job descriptions and when assessing job performance.

Intrinsic value is the inherent value that something has in and of itself. It is not dependent on external factors, such as market conditions or the opinions of others. The underlying assumption in the assessment of job content is that the value of job content is not determined by external market conditions, but rather by its inherent value.

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select all that apply implementing activity-based costing . multiple select question. should be done by a cross-functional team should be done using existing, historical data that can be verified requires substantial resources requires taking employees away from other tasks

Answers

The options that are true for implementing activity-based costing include:

a) Should be done by a cross-functional team.

b) Should be done using existing, historical data that can be verified.

c) Requires substantial resources.

d) Requires taking employees away from other tasks.

What is activity-based costing?

Activity-based costing (ABC) is a cost accounting approach that examines an organization's activities to determine its expenses. It is based on the theory that activities consume resources, and that the cost of a product or service is directly linked to the amount of activities that go into creating it. ABC is a relatively new method of costing, but it has gained popularity in recent years.

ABC is primarily used in manufacturing businesses, but it may also be used in service-oriented organizations. ABC is used to evaluate the cost of items and services, as well as to assess the profitability of each item or service.

ABC is significant for the following reasons:

ABC helps to identify costs that are less visible in conventional cost accounting.ABC is based on the concept that each item or service has a different set of costs.ABC improves the accuracy of cost information by assigning costs to activities.ABC can help with strategic planning and decision-making since it provides more precise information about the cost of a product or service.

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Please complete that statements below to indicate how GDP and living standards are affected in each scenario. a. If unpaid housework were formalized in GDP, GDP woould ___, and living standards would ___
b. Given improved production technologies, GDP would ___ and living standards would ___
c. Suppose the black market shrinks because firms shift to the formal sector, but production remains the same. GDP would ____ and living standards would ___
d. If workers worked less but produced the same amount, GDP would ___ and living standards would ___
e. If volanteers cleaned a river used for swimming, GDP would ___ and living standards would and living ___
f. Assume people dislike inequality. If income inequality decreases, GDP would ___ and living standards would ___

Answers

If unpaid housework were officially included in GDP, GDP would rise and it would appear that living standards would improve. GDP would rise as a result of more advanced production technology, and living standards may possibly rise.

What is the most accurate metric to use when comparing standards of living around the globe?

We use a metric known as GDP per capita to evaluate the standard of living in each nation. By creating and offering items and services for sale, people earn their living.

What signs of a high standard of living are there?

A society's standard of life is determined by easy-to-quantify factors like income, employment opportunities, the price of goods and services, and poverty. Life expectancy, the rate of inflation, and the number of paid vacation days that people receive each year are also included on the list.

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T/F: a two-for one stock split would the number of shares outstanding, whereas a 10% stock dividend will increase the number of shares outstanding by only 10%.

Answers

True.

A two-for-one stock split would double the number of shares outstanding, whereas a 10% stock dividend would only increase the number of shares outstanding by 10%.

What is a stock split?

A stock split is a business practice in which a business divides its current shares into several new ones. A company might undertake a stock split to make the shares more appealing to prospective shareholders.

They can also do it to increase trading activity and/or to give current shareholders additional shares, which can be used to vote on future corporate matters or sold for profit.

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A strategy of diversifying into unrelated businessesa. concentrates on diversifying into businesses where a company can exploit use of well-known and competitively potent brand name, earn the highest profit margins, and have the greatest number of attractive market opportunities.b. generally offers more competitive advantage potential than related diversification because of the ease of capturing valuable cross-business resource fits.c. is aimed chiefly at broadening a company’s present product line and offering customer a bigger choice of models, styles, and product versions.d. is the best way for a company to lower its overall business risk, achieve consistently good profitability, and earn a sustainable competitive advantage over rival companies.e. involves entering any industry and operating any business where senior managers see opportunity to realize consistently good financial results – there’s no deliberate effort to diversify only into businesses with valuable cross-business strategic fits.

Answers

Diversification is the process of allocating capital to reduce exposure to a particular asset or threat. This is variant B.

A strategy of diversifying into unconnected means generally offers lesser eventuality for competitive advantage than linked diversification due to the ease of acquiring precious cross-industry means.

Diversification is a growth strategy where you enter a new request or assiduity that your company isn't presently in while developing a new product for that new request.

Independent diversification is a business strategy aimed at expanding a company's operations into new and strange business areas. Unlike chapter diversification, which involves expanding into businesses that partake analogous parallels with an being business, unconnected diversification involves diversifying into businesses that have no cooperation with an being business.

Question:

diversification strategy in independent companies

a) focuses on diversifying into business areas where the company can profit from a strong, well- known and competitive brand, induce the loftiest profit perimeters and have the most seductive request openings.

b) generally offers lesser eventuality for competitive advantage than the diversification it brings because of the ease of acquiring precious cross-industry asset matches.

c) is primarily intended to expand the company's being immolation and give guests with a lesser choice of product models, styles and performances.

d) is the stylish way to reduce the company's overall business threat, achieve constantly good profitability, and gain a sustainable competitive advantage over contending companies.

e) involves entering any assiduity and running a business where elderly operation sees an occasion to constantly achieve good fiscal results There's no conscious trouble to diversify only into businesses with precious cross-industry strategic alignments.

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If a foreign-based firm borrows money from a host country bank as a hedge against being forced out of operation without adequate compensation, the firm is managing political risk with ________.

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If a foreign-based firm borrows money from a host country bank as a hedge against being forced out of operation without adequate compensation, the firm is managing political risk with financial risk.

What is Financial Risk?

The risk of losing money on an investment, transaction, or lending is referred to as financial risk. Financial risk management includes identifying and analyzing potential losses, as well as implementing measures to avoid or reduce them. The most popular method for managing financial risk is diversification, which reduces risk by spreading investments across several asset classes or sectors.

A foreign-based firm borrows money from a host country bank as a hedge against being forced out of operation without adequate compensation, the firm is managing political risk with financial risk. In order to minimize political risk, a firm may acquire political risk insurance, form joint ventures with local firms, or conduct research to assess the likelihood of changes in laws or regulations that may have an impact on its operations in a particular country.

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to test the client's cutoff of inventories, the auditors will make a record of the serial number of the final receiving and shipping documents used prior to the taking of the physical inventory. group startstrue or false

Answers

The statement "to test the client's cutoff of inventories, the auditors will make a record of the serial number of the final receiving and shipping documents used prior to the taking of the physical inventory" is true because cutoff test require all the transactions.

What are cutoff tests?

Cutoff tests are audit procedures that assess if transactions have been recorded in the correct reporting period. Because businesses prepare financial statements on a periodic basis, it's important that financial information is accurately recorded in the correct period. Cutoff testing is done at the year-end audit to ensure that transactions are recorded in the correct period.

Cutoff tests are also referred to as balance-related verification procedures. Cutoff tests are audit procedures performed by auditors to verify whether transactions have been reported in the correct reporting period or not. The auditors will verify if the transactions have been properly recorded to prevent material misstatements in the financial statements.

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Sefu is writing a speech on why his school board is going to cut funding for the arts, and what members of the community can do to prevent cuts from happening. He is writing a ___________ speech.1. Comparative2. causal3.problem-solution4. topical

Answers

Answer:

C problem-solution

Explanation:

he's writing about the problem and how to make a solution

how does an accountant make the following representations when issuing the standard report for the compilation of a nonpublic entity's financial statements? the financial statements have not been audited/ the accountant has compiled the financial statements

Answers

An accountant is responsible for making certain representations when issuing a standard report for the compilation of a nonpublic entity's financial statements. This report must include a representation that the accountant has compiled the financial statements in accordance with the generally accepted accounting principles. It must also include a representation that the financial statements.

Additionally, it must include a representation that the accountant has no knowledge of any material modifications necessary to make the financial statements comply with the applicable accounting framework.

An accountant must make certain representations when issuing the standard report for the compilation of a nonpublic entity's financial statements, including accounting principles, the statements reflect all necessary adjustments for a fair and accurate view, they have no knowledge of any material modifications to comply with the accounting framework, and the financial statements are the responsibility of the management.

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Suppose the marginal benefit of writing a contract is $70, independent of its length. Find the optimal contract length when the marginal cost of writing a contract of length L is:
Instruction: Enter your responses rounded to two decimal places.
a. MC(L) = 40 + 2L.
b. MC(L) = 20 + 5L.
c. What happens to the optimal contract length when the marginal cost of writing a contract declines?
(Click to select) It stays the same. It increases. It decreases.

Answers

When the marginal cost of writing a contract declines, the optimal contract length increases.

The given marginal benefit of writing a contract is [tex]$70[/tex], independent of its length. We are to determine the optimal contract length when the marginal cost of writing a contract of length L is MC(L) = [tex]40 + 2L[/tex] or MC(L) = [tex]20 + 5L.[/tex]

Also, we are to determine what happens to the optimal contract length when the marginal cost of writing a contract declines. Given that the marginal benefit of writing a contract is [tex]$70[/tex], independent of its length. We know that the optimal contract length is where the marginal cost of writing a contract is equal to the marginal benefit of writing a contract. i.e.

MC(L) = MB = [tex]$70[/tex]

Now, MC(L) = [tex]40 + 2L[/tex](Option A)

We have, [tex]40 + 2L = 70[/tex]  (As MC(L) = MB)

L = 15

The optimal contract length is 15.

Now, MC(L) = [tex]20 + 5L[/tex] (Option B)

We have,[tex]20 + 5L = 70[/tex] (As MC(L) = MB) [tex]5L = 50L = 10[/tex]

The optimal contract length is 10.

Hence, we have determined the optimal contract length for the given MC(L) options. Now, we need to determine what happens to the optimal contract length when the marginal cost of writing a contract declines.

When the marginal cost of writing a contract declines, the optimal contract length increases.

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Which of these is the interest rate that would exist on a default-free security if no inflation were expected?
nominal interest rate
real interest rate
default premium
market premium

Answers

The interest rate that would apply to an asset with no risk of default if inflation were not anticipated is known as the nominal interest rate.

The interest rate that would be levied on a financial instrument, such a bond, if inflation were not predicted is referred to as the nominal interest rate. The stated interest rate is what's utilised to calculate the total cost of borrowing or the investment's return. The nominal interest rate accounts for variables like the possibility of default, the anticipated rate of inflation, and the time worth of money. Often, it is stated as an annual percentage rate (APR). As the nominal interest rate is not adjusted for inflation, it could not accurately represent the return on investment's real buying power. As a result, it frequently appears with the actual interest rate.

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One disadvantage of government subsidies over price controls is that subsidiesA. cause unemployment.B. make higher taxes necessary.C. prevent the attainment of equilibrium in the markets in which they are imposed.D. are always unfair to those with low incomes.

Answers

Answer:B Make higher taxes necessary

Make

Explanation:

This is because if there are subsidizes then the money must come from

explain the significance of sin tax

Answers

Syntaxes are extremely important for a society.

What exactly are syntaxes?

Sin taxes are intended to deter people from engaging in socially harmful actions. The goal is to make harmful products more expensive to obtain, thereby reducing or eliminating their consumption. They also provide government with a source of revenue.

A sin tax is a fee imposed on products or services deemed hazardous or expensive to society. Tobacco, alcohol, sugary drinks, and gambling are typical types of goods and services.

The primary goals of imposing cigarette taxes are to minimize the use of harmful goods while increasing government revenue. According to research, the sin taxations on both alcohol and cigarettes actively discourage their consumption. The reduction in tobacco and alcohol consumption leads to a reduction in medical problems linked to the use of harmful substances.

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a. At a product price of $56, will this firm produce in the short run? If it is preferable to produce, what will be the profit-maximizing or loss-minimizing output? What economic profit or loss will the firm realize per unit of output? b. Answer the questions of 4a assuming product price is $41. c. Answer the questions of 4a assuming product price is $32. d. In the table below, complete the short-run supply schedule for the firm (columns 1 and 2) and indicate the profit or loss incurred at each output (column 3).

Answers

At a product price of $56, the firm will produce in the short run if the price is equal to or greater than the minimum average variable cost (AVC) at the profit-maximizing output level. If the product price is $56, the firm will produce, since the product price is greater than the minimum AVC, which is $50.

The profit-maximizing or loss-minimizing output will be where MC = MR. The table below shows that the profit-maximizing output is 7 units, with a profit of $18 per unit of output. Thus, the total economic profit would be ($18 x 7 units) = $126.

b. At a product price of $41, the firm will not produce in the short run because the product price is less than the minimum AVC. The minimum AVC is $50, and the product price is $41. Thus, the loss-minimizing output level is zero, and the total loss is $50 per unit of output.
c. At a product price of $32, the firm will not produce in the short run because the product price is less than the minimum AVC. The minimum AVC is $50, and the product price is $32. Thus, the loss-minimizing output level is zero, and the total loss is $50 per unit of output.
d. In the table below, we complete the short-run supply schedule for the firm (columns 1 and 2) and indicate the profit or loss incurred at each output
At every output level, the firm is incurring losses.

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marketers that are interested in identifying the characteristics and trends among ultimate consumers such as age or ethnic background are likely to start with which source of data? multiple choice question. questionnaire results u.s. census bureau reports in-depth interviews neuromarketing studies

Answers

Answer: The best source of data for marketers that are interested in identifying the characteristics and trends among ultimate consumers such as age or ethnic background is U.S. Census Bureau reports. These reports provide data on population demographics, including age and ethnic background, as well as economic indicators.


Explanation: Marketers that are interested in identifying the characteristics and trends among ultimate consumers such as age or ethnic background are likely to start with U.S. Census Bureau reports.

The U.S. Census Bureau is the country's principal statistical agency. It gathers information on the population and the economy, as well as measures poverty, demographics, and housing. It is one of the US Department of Commerce's oldest departments, dating back to 1790, and it provides data that shape the country's understanding of its population and economy.

Trends and Characteristics: Marketing departments use a variety of tactics to identify market trends and consumer characteristics, including surveys, questionnaires, interviews, and neuromarketing studies. A marketing department can learn more about the target audience by breaking down demographic data from sources such as the U.S. Census Bureau.

Census data, for example, can provide a wealth of knowledge about age and ethnic background, which is particularly useful for companies selling niche products or for targeting ads to a particular group. An understanding of a target audience's age, gender, and education level can help a marketer develop effective messaging and segmentation strategies. This knowledge can also help a marketing department choose which promotional strategies to employ in order to reach their target audience effectively.

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what two issues must be considered when putting together a firm's promotional mix? multiple select question.

Answers

The two issues to consider when putting together a firm's promotional mix are the target audience and budget.

The target audience should be the first consideration when designing a promotional mix. Knowing the demographics and preferences of your target audience will inform what kinds of promotional strategies and tactics will be effective.

For example, if the target audience consists of young people, a promotional mix could include social media campaigns and influencer marketing.

The second issue to consider is the budget. A firm’s promotional mix should align with the amount of money they have available to spend on marketing.

Once the budget is set, the promotional mix should be tailored to that budget in order to maximize its impact. Additionally, it is important to track the return on investment (ROI) of each strategy and adjust the mix accordingly.

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demand for a product is given by cases of the product at a price of $ per case. at what price will consumers no longer purchase the product?

Answers

Based on the demand of a product given, the price at which consumers will no longer purchase the product is $100.

The demand for a product is given by D (p) = -125 ln(0.01p) cases of the product at a price of $p per case. The price of the product when consumers no longer purchase it can be found by setting the demand function equal to zero.

The formula for the demand function is:

D(p) = -125 ln(0.01p)

To find the price at which consumers no longer buy the product, we'll set D(p) to 0 and solve for p.

0 = -125 ln(0.01p)

Divide both sides by -125.

-125 ln(0.01p)/-125 = 0/-125

ln(0.01p) = 0

We'll now solve for p by exponentiating both sides.

e^0 = e^(ln(0.01p))

1 = 0.01p

Divide both sides by 0.01.

p = 100

Therefore, consumers will no longer purchase the product at a price of $100 per case.

Note: The question is incomplete. The complete question probably is: Demand for a product is given by D (p) = -125 ln(0.01p) cases of the product at a price of $p per case. At what price will consumers no longer purchase the product?

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demenna, inc., has an accounts receivable subsidiary ledger with the following balances: ditkowsky: $10,000; shermer: $20,000; scandriato: $30,000; panullo: $40,000; and d'arcante: $50,000. demenna's accounts receivable balance is

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Demenna Inc.'s accounts receivable balance is $150,000.

To calculate Demenna Inc.'s accounts receivable balance, we need to add up the balances of all the accounts in its subsidiary ledger.

According to the information provided, the balances in the subsidiary ledger are:

Ditkowsky: $10,000Shermer: $20,000Scandriato: $30,000Panullo: $40,000D'arcante: $50,000

To find Demenna's total accounts receivable balance, we simply add up these amounts:

Total accounts receivable balance = $10,000 + $20,000 + $30,000 + $40,000 + $50,000

= $150,000

Therefore, account receivable balance = $150,000.

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Problem 4-5 Income statement presentation: Restructuring costs: Discontinued operations; Accounting error
The preliminary 2018 income statement of Alexian Systems, Inc. is presented below ALEXIAN SYSTEMS, INC. Income Statement For the Year Ended December 31, 2018 ( sin millions, except earnings per share) Revenues and gains: Net sales $ 432 Interest 10 Other income 133
Total revenues and gains 575
Expenses: Cost of goods sold 277
Selling and administrative 158
Income taxes 42
Total expenses 477
Net Income 98
Earnings per share 3.50
Additional Information: 1. Selling and administrative expenses include $33 million in restructuring costs. 2. Included in other income is $120 million in income from a discontinued operation. This consists of $90 million in operating income and a $30 million gain on disposal. The remaining S13 million is from the gain on sale of investments 3. Cost of goods sold was increased by $10 million to correct an error in the calculation of 2017's ending inventory. The amount is material Required: Prepare a revised income statement for 2018 reflecting the additional facts. Use a multiple-step format Assume that an income tax rate of 30% applies to all income statement items, and that 28 million shares of common stock were outstanding throughout the year (Enter your answers in millions except earnings per share. Round EPS answers to 2 decimal places.)

Answers

ALEXIAN SYSTEMS, INC. Income Statement For the Year Ended December 31, 2018 (in millions, except earnings per share)

Revenues and Gains:
Net sales $432
Interest 10
Other income 33
Total revenues and gains 475
Expenses:
Cost of goods sold 287
Selling and administrative 191
Income taxes 57
Total expenses 535
Net Loss (60)
Loss per share (2.14)

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what are some typical fees a financial institution might charge its customers? choose all that apply.\

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Some typical fees that a financial institution might charge its customers are overdraft fees, monthly maintenance fees, minimum balance fees, ATM fees, transfer fees, late payment fees, application fees, returned item fees, currency conversion fees, inactivity fees

What are financial institutions?

The fees charged by financial institutions may differ based on the services they offer, the account type, and the location. Financial institutions charge their customers fees to cover expenses, such as administrative expenses, infrastructure, and security costs.

To attract more customers, some financial institutions do not charge any fees or offer low-cost accounts with a limited set of services. It is critical to compare fees across financial institutions before opening an account to ensure that you are receiving the best deal. Additionally, some fees may be avoided by adhering to certain account policies, such as keeping a minimum balance or only using in-network ATMs.

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when a fortune 500 business lays off workers, some displaced employees may decide to start their own businesses. they are best described as a. welfare profiteers. b. corporate entrepreneurs. c. reluctant entrepreneurs. d. corporate refugees.

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When a Fortune 500 business lays off workers, the displaced employees who may decide to start their own businesses are best described as C) reluctant entrepreneurs.

What is a reluctant entrepreneur?

Reluctant entrepreneurship refers to entrepreneurship that is a last resort due to a lack of other employment options, whether it is the outcome of unemployment, underemployment, or an unsatisfactory career situation.

Reluctant entrepreneurs often lack the psychological or economic characteristics that are traditionally associated with the entrepreneurial spirit. They may be lacking in self-confidence, interpersonal skills, or even creativity.

What is the Fortune 500?

The Fortune 500 is a yearly ranking list of the top 500 US public and private companies, ranked by total revenues for their fiscal years. It has been published by Fortune magazine annually since 1955, except for 2020.

The list includes publicly traded businesses as well as privately held businesses that submit financial statements to the SEC or a government agency, with revenues of at least $5.4 billion.

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the combination of prices and real output that is compatible with both aggregate demand and aggregate supply is called the .

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The combination of prices and real output that is compatible with both aggregate demand and aggregate supply is called the Equilibrium Price. Equilibrium Price occurs when aggregate demand equals aggregate supply, which results in an optimal balance of price and output.

What is the Equilibrium Price?

The equilibrium price is the point at which the supply of a product equals the demand for it, resulting in a stable price. This state is attained when the aggregate demand curve intersects the aggregate supply curve. At this point, neither the buyers nor the sellers have the incentive to adjust the price.

The combination of prices and real output that is compatible with both aggregate demand and aggregate supply is called the equilibrium price and quantity. When the equilibrium price is achieved, the quantity of goods demanded and the quantity of goods supplied will be equal. Therefore, there will be no surpluses or shortages of goods at this price, and the market will be in a stable condition.

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Suppose that you and a friend are playing cards and you decide to make a friendly wager. The bet is that you will draw two cards without replacement from a standard deck. If both cards are spades, your friend will pay you $49. Otherwise, you have to pay your friend $5. If this same bet is made 519 times, how much would you expect to win or lose? Round your answer to two decimal places. Losses must be expressed as negative values.

Answers

The expected value of this bet is $-0.10, meaning that if you were to make this bet 519 times, you would expect to lose $51.80. This is because the probability of drawing two spades from a standard deck is 0.0258, so for every 519 bets, you would expect 13 of them to be successful (0.0258 * 519). The expected value for each successful bet is 49, and for each unsuccessful bet, the expected value is -5. Therefore, the overall expected value is (13 * 49) + (-506 * 5) = -0.10.

In general, expected value is used to calculate the average winnings (or losses) of a bet over a large number of trials. It is calculated by multiplying the probability of a given outcome by the reward (or penalty) associated with that outcome, and then summing those values for all possible outcomes.

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A U.S. corporate issued bond is currently trading for $932. Which of the following statements are either likely or certainly true? (choose all that apply)
a. The bond's coupon rate is higher than its YTM.
b. The bond's coupon rate is lower than its YTM.
c. The bond's face value is $1000.
d. The bond pays interest semiannually.
e. This bond would be considered a discount bond at this time.
f. This bond would be considered a junk bond at this time

Answers

The bond's face value is $1000, and it pays interest semiannually. Therefore, this bond would be considered a discount bond at this time. The correct option is e.

A U.S. corporate issued bond is currently trading for $932. Which of the following statements are either likely or certainly true? The bond's coupon rate is lower than its YTM.

What are bonds?

Bonds are debt securities that companies or the government issue in order to raise funds for a variety of purposes, including financing infrastructure projects or funding the company's operations. This kind of security can be traded on financial markets, and their value fluctuates depending on a variety of factors.A U.S. corporate issued bond is presently trading for $932.

Which of the following statements are either likely or certainly true?

Coupon rate and yield to maturity (YTM) are two concepts that are often confused with one another. The coupon rate, which is the annual interest rate that the bond issuer will pay to the bondholder, is not the same as the YTM, which is the total return an investor will get if the bond is held until it matures. The bond's coupon rate is lower than its YTM because the bond is currently trading at a discount. When the bond's price is lower than its face value, the bond is said to be trading at a discount.

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