in order to be successful, bpm requires all of the following except . a. buy-in from a broad cross section of the business b. software to map processes that are performed manual c. the right technology d. highly effective change management processes

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Answer 1

The right technology. Business Process Management (BPM) requires buy-in from a broad cross section of the business, software to map processes that are performed manually, and highly effective change management processes in order to be successful. The correct answer is C.


The first part of successful BPM is buy-in from a broad cross section of the business. Buy-in ensures that all stakeholders are on board with the changes BPM will bring and understand their role in the process. It also ensures that the changes will be accepted and supported.


Software to map processes that are performed manually is necessary to gain a thorough understanding of existing processes. This helps identify and measure key performance indicators, highlight process bottlenecks and areas for improvement, and develop and streamline processes.


Change management processes are essential for successful implementation of BPM. It is important to have a well-defined process for change management, including training, communication, and monitoring. The right technology is not essential for successful BPM, although it can help to automate and streamline processes.

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Related Questions

an income tax is regressive if group of answer choices
a. the tax liability of high-income recipients exceeds the tax liability of those with low incomes. b. the tax liability of high-income recipients is less than the tax liability of those with low incomes. c. high-income recipients pay a higher percentage of their incomes in taxes than those with low incomes. d. high-income recipients pay a lower percentage of their incomes in taxes than those whose incomes are low.

Answers

An income tax is regressive if "high-income recipients pay a lower percentage of their incomes in taxes than those whose incomes are low." Regressive tax, The correct option is D.

A regressive tax is a tax in which the rate of tax decreases as the taxable amount increases. In other words, a regressive tax is where individuals with lower incomes pay more in taxes as a percentage of their income than individuals with higher incomes.

What is the meaning of Regressive Tax? A regressive tax is a tax that takes a higher percentage of income from low-income earners than high-income earners. It is the opposite of a progressive tax, which takes a higher percentage from high-income earners than low-income earners. A regressive tax is a tax that is applied uniformly to all taxpayers, regardless of income or ability to pay, resulting in a disproportionately higher tax burden for low-income earners. A regressive tax is a tax system in which individuals with lower incomes pay a higher percentage of their income in taxes than individuals with higher incomes. The regressive tax burden places a heavier burden on those with less income, making it less fair than a progressive tax.

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A minimum resale price maintenance agreement requires a dealer who buys from a manufacturer ______________________________ .
to sell for at least a certain minimum price
to avoid engaging in restrictive practices.
to guarantee a certain percentage of market share
to sell for at least a certain maximum price

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A minimum resale price maintenance agreement requires a dealer who buys from a manufacturer to sell for at least a certain minimum price.

MRPM, or minimum resale price maintenance, is a contract between a supplier and a distributor of a product that establishes the minimum price that can be charged for that product. The reseller agrees not to sell the item for less than the minimum price set by the manufacturer in this agreement.

Minimum resale price maintenance can be beneficial for both the reseller and the manufacturer. It ensures that the product is sold for the same price across all channels, allowing the reseller to earn a reasonable profit. The producer, on the other hand, can ensure that their brand and product will retain its value.

However, it is important to remember that MRPM is only legal if it is implemented reasonably, meaning that the minimum price should not be so high that it leads to market monopoly or otherwise restricts trade.

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you would like to retire on $1,500,000. you plan on a 6% annual investment rate and will put away $9,000 twice a year at the end of each semi-annual period. how long before you can retire? round to the nearest year.

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You would like to retire on $1,500,000. You plan on a 6% annual investment rate and will put away $9,000 twice a year at the end of each semi-annual period. It will take 14.5 years to retire with $1,500,000.

The number of years it will take to retire with $1,500,000,

[tex]FV = Pmt x [(1 + r/n)^(n x t) - 1] / (r/n)[/tex]

FV is the future value of the annuity (the amount you want to retire with)

Pmt is the amount of each semi-annual payment ($9,000)

r is the annual investment rate (6%)

n is the number of times the interest is compounded per year (2, since the payments, are made semi-annually)

t is the number of years until retirement (what we want to find)

Plugging in the values, we get:

[tex]1,500,000 = 9,000 x [(1 + 0.06/2)^(2 x t) - 1] / (0.06/2)[/tex]

[tex]1,500,000 = 9,000 x [1.03^(2t) - 1] / 0.031,500,000 x 0.03 = 9,000 x [1.03^(2t) - 1]45,000 = 9,000 x [1.03^(2t) - 1]1.03^(2t) - 1 = 51.03^(2t) = 6[/tex]

Taking the natural logarithm of both sides:

[tex]2t x ln(1.03) = ln(6)t = ln(6) / (2 x ln(1.03))t ≈ 14.5[/tex]

Therefore, it will take approximately 14.5 years (rounded to the nearest year) to retire with $1,500,000.

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A key planning principle is that plans are most coherent when developed by a single emergency management professional and then presented to the response community for approval. A. TRUE
B. FALSE

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"A key planning principle is that plans are most coherent when developed by a single emergency management professional and then presented to the response community for approval," is false (F) because effective emergency planning requires collaboration and input from multiple stakeholders within the response community.

The statement is false because emergency planning is a collaborative process that involves input from multiple stakeholders, including emergency management professionals, first responders, government agencies, community organizations, and the public.

Effective emergency planning requires the integration of diverse perspectives and expertise, as well as a shared understanding of the community's needs and capabilities. Collaborative planning ensures that all stakeholders have a voice in the planning process, and that plans are developed in a way that is responsive to the needs of the community.

By engaging multiple stakeholders, plans are more likely to be comprehensive, coherent, and effective in guiding emergency response efforts. Therefore, it is essential to involve the entire response community in the planning process rather than relying on a single emergency management professional.

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product standards, subsidies, and quotas are examples of policies.

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Answer:protectionist policies

Explanation:

suppose the growth rate of gdp in the united states is 2.9 percent. if 1.2 percent and 0.9 percent are due, respectively, to capital and labor growth, the amount resulting from technological progress is: answer unselected 2.1 percent unselected 1.0 percent unselected 0.8 percent

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The growth rate of GDP in the United States is 2.9%. If 1.2% and 0.9% are due, respectively, to capital and labor growth, the amount resulting from technological progress is 0.8%.

GDP (Gross Domestic Product) is the market value of all goods and services produced within a nation's borders in a given year. It is the most commonly used economic indicator, used by policymakers and analysts to assess the state of the economy and its economic growth. It is calculated by summing the consumption expenditure, investment expenditure, government expenditure, and net exports (exports minus imports). Technological progress refers to the development of new technologies or the improvement of existing technologies that result in increased productivity or efficiency. Technological progress can be achieved through investments in research and development or through the adoption of new technologies in production processes. Suppose the growth rate of GDP in the United States is 2.9%. If 1.2% and 0.9% are due, respectively, to capital and labor growth, the amount resulting from technological progress is 0.8%. This is because: 2.9% = 1.2% + 0.9% + Technological progress

Technological progress = 2.9% - 1.2% - 0.9% Technological progress = 0.8% Hence, the amount resulting from technological progress is 0.8%.

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consider a risky portfolio. the end-of-year cash flow derived from the portfolio wits be either $40,000 or $180,000, with equal probabilities of 0.5. the alternative riskless investment in t-bills pays 4%. if you require a risk premium of 10%, how much will you be willing to pay for the portfolio? a) $57230 b) $28704 c) $75000 d) $96491

Answers

The amount you would be willing to pay for the portfolio is: $96,491. The correct option is D.

This can be calculated as follows:

The expected end-of-year cashflow from the risky portfolio is $110,000, that is  [(40,000 x 0.5) + (180,000 x 0.5)].

The expected return from the riskless investment in T-bills is 4%, which equals $4,400 that is [(100,000 x 0.04)].

The risk premium required is 10%, so the expected return from the risky portfolio must be $14,400 that is [(100,000 x 0.10)].

Therefore, the amount you are willing to pay for the portfolio is $96,491 that is [(110,000 - 4,400) / 0.10)].

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david has finished gathering the data needed for his report on product research, development, and sales. as he prepares his report, what should david keep in mind?

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David, while preparing his report on product research, development, and sales should keep in mind that his report should be concise, easy to read, and have proper formatting.

What should David keep in mind?

David should keep in mind that the report must answer questions related to the company's product research, development, and sales. Additionally, David should make sure that the report is understandable to those who do not have knowledge in the industry.

David should keep the following things in mind when preparing his report:

1. The objective of the report: David should identify the report's purpose and objective. The report's objective should be to provide insight into the company's product research, development, and sales.

2. Audience: David should know who his audience is. Depending on the audience, David can customize the report.

3. Conciseness: David should make sure that the report is concise and easy to read.

4. Proper Formatting: David should keep in mind that the report should be well-formatted. David should include a table of contents, an executive summary, and subheadings to make the report easy to read.

5. Use simple language: David should use simple language while preparing his report. The use of technical jargon can confuse readers who are not familiar with the industry.

6. Data accuracy: David should ensure that the data used in the report is accurate and reliable.

7. Use visuals: David should include visual aids like charts, graphs, and tables to make the report more attractive and informative.

8. Recommendations: David should make recommendations to the company based on his research. His suggestions should be practical and should improve the company's product research, development, and sales.

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Do you think the current system of punishment for cimes committed in the United States works? Why or why not? What would you change about the system?

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Answer:

According to my understanding of the text, the author suggests that the current system of punishment in the United States is not effective, as evidenced by overcrowded jails. They suggest that not everyone who commits a crime needs to be incarcerated and that some may benefit more from rehabilitation or counseling, particularly those who have experienced past traumas or abuse. The author suggests that this approach should depend on the specific crime committed, with substance abuse users being directed towards rehabilitation and juveniles in detention centers being treated differently depending on their offense. The author notes that there is no rehabilitation in incarceration and that it may not be the best option for some offenders. However, for offenders who commit violent crimes such as sex offenders, murderers, and criminals, the author believes that harsh punishment is warranted. The author also disagrees with pardoning drug traffickers and dealers who have not committed violent crimes and believes that they should be incarcerated for their offenses, which they consider to be just as bad as violent crimes.

Bought additional inner tubes from Wright's Tires for$536, paying$100down, with the remainder due in thirty days. 31 Thylor withdrew eash for personal use,$2,500

Answers

the amount left in the account after 31 days is $2064.

The given question can be solved using the following steps:

Bought additional inner tubes from Wright's Tires for $536, paying $100 down, with the remainder due in thirty days.Thus, the amount left to be paid is: $536 - $100 = $436.

Now, after 31 days, Thylor withdrew cash for personal use which was $2,500.So, the amount of money left in the account is: $2500 - $436 = $2064.

The total cost of the inner tubes was $536. Thus, the account would be left with $2064 after 31 days.

Step-by-step explanation of the above calculation is as follows:

Total cost of inner tubes = $536

Amount paid initially = $100

Amount left to be paid = $536 - $100 = $436

Amount left in the account after 31 days = $2500 - $436 = $2064.

the amount left in the account after 31 days is $2064.

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in a perpetual inventory system, if merchandise is returned to a supplier: multiple choice purchase returns is credited. inventory is debited. inventory is credited. purchase discounts is credited.

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In a perpetual inventory system, if merchandise is returned to a supplier, inventory is credited.

What is a perpetual inventory system?

A perpetual inventory system is a technique for monitoring inventory levels in real time. A perpetual inventory system keeps track of the stock, sales, and customer experience in real time, allowing businesses to keep up with their stock levels at all times.

A debit to accounts payable and cash and a credit to inventory are the entries made in the journal to reflect the return of goods to the supplier.

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an investor purchases one municipal and one corporate bond that pay rates of return of 7.5% and 10.3%, respectively. if the investor is in the 24% marginal tax bracket, his or her after-tax rates of return on the municipal and corporate bonds would be and , respectively. group of answer choices 7.5%; 10.3% 5.63%; 10.3% 5.63%; 7.73% 10%; 10% 7.5%; 7.83%

Answers

The investor in the 24% marginal tax bracket will have an after-tax rate of return of 5.63% on the municipal bond and 7.73% on the corporate bond.

This is calculated by subtracting the 24% tax rate from the respective returns of 7.5% and 10.3%, resulting in 5.63% and 7.73%. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 5.63%; 7.73%.
To calculate the after-tax rate of return on a bond, you need to subtract the tax rate from the bond’s stated rate of return. For example, if the bond has a rate of return of 10.3% and you are in the 24% marginal tax bracket, you would subtract 24% from 10.3%, resulting in 7.73%. This is the after-tax rate of return.
In conclusion, the correct answer to the question is 5.63%; 7.73%.

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When units sold exceeds units producednet income under absorption costing equals net income under variable costing.net income under absorption costing is lower than net income under variable costing.net income under absorption costing is higher than net income under variable costing.the relationship between net income under absorption costing and net income under variable costing cannot be predicted.

Answers

When units sold exceeds units produced, net income under absorption costing can either be lower than or higher than net income under variable costing. The exact relationship between net income under absorption costing and net income under variable costing cannot be predicted.

Step-by-Step Explanation:
1. When units sold exceed units produced, absorption costing takes into account the cost of manufacturing that has been incurred, including fixed costs such as depreciation, in addition to variable costs.
2. Variable costing, on the other hand, only takes into account variable costs associated with production.
3. Therefore, depending on the difference in variable costs and fixed costs, net income under absorption costing may be lower than or higher than net income under variable costing.
4. It is not possible to predict the exact relationship between net income under absorption costing and net income under variable costing.

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the sarbanes-oxley act requires companies to . answer unselected state policies for protecting e-commerce sales unselected divide responsibilities between two or more individuals unselected have all documents maintained in an electronic format unselected conduct a review of internal controls and take responsibility for the accuracy and completeness of their financial reports

Answers

"The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires companies to conduct a review of internal controls and take responsibility for the accuracy and completeness of their financial reports." Thus, Option D is correct.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) is a federal law enacted in 2002 to prevent corporate fraud and improve transparency and accountability in financial reporting. SOX requires companies to establish and maintain internal controls over financial reporting, which are policies and procedures designed to ensure the accuracy and completeness of financial information.

Companies must assess the effectiveness of their internal controls and report any deficiencies to the public. SOX also mandates that top executives of public companies certify the accuracy of financial reports and assume personal responsibility for any errors or omissions.

The goal of SOX is to promote investor confidence and protect shareholders from fraudulent or misleading financial statements. Thus, Option D is correct.

This question should be provided as:

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires companies to _________.

A. state policies for protecting E-Commerce salesb. divide responsibilities between two or more individuals c. have all documents maintained in an electronic format d. conduct a review of internal controls and take responsibility for the accuracy and completeness of their financial reports

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Assume a firm is considering a repurchase of its shares in the market. The firm has $1,000,000 in excess cash, $5,000,000 in earnings after taxes, and 500,000 shares outstanding. The stock trades at a P/E ratio of 20. The current price of the stock is $200 (P/E xEPS) and the dividends per share are $2 (excess cash/share outstanding). What is the price of the stock after the shares have been reacquired?

Answers

The price of the stock after the shares have been reacquired would be $161.60 per share.

First, let's calculate the earnings per share (EPS):

EPS = earnings after taxes / number of shares outstanding

EPS = $5,000,000 / 500,000 shares

EPS = $10 per share

Next, let's calculate the excess cash per share:

Excess cash per share = excess cash / number of shares outstanding

Excess cash per share = $1,000,000 / 500,000 shares

Excess cash per share = $2 per share

The total value of excess cash that can be used for share repurchases is:

Total excess cash = excess cash per share x number of shares outstanding

Total excess cash = $2 per share x 500,000 shares

Total excess cash = $1,000,000

The total market capitalization of the firm is:

Market capitalization = stock price x number of shares outstanding

Market capitalization = $200 per share x 500,000 shares

Market capitalization = $100,000,000

The total earnings of the firm are:

Total earnings = EPS x number of shares outstanding

Total earnings = $10 per share x 500,000 shares

Total earnings = $5,000,000

Since the stock trades at a P/E ratio of 20, we can calculate the current earnings multiple as:

Earnings multiple = stock price / EPS

Earnings multiple = $200 per share / $10 per share

Earnings multiple = 20

To calculate the new earnings per share after the share repurchase, we can use the following equation:

New EPS = (Total earnings - Excess cash) / (Number of shares outstanding - Number of shares repurchased)

Let's assume the firm uses all of its excess cash to repurchase shares. Then, the number of shares repurchased would be:

Number of shares repurchased = Total excess cash / Stock price after repurchase

Number of shares repurchased = $1,000,000 / $200 per share

Number of shares repurchased = 5,000 shares

Substituting the values into the equation, we get:

New EPS = ($5,000,000 - $1,000,000) / (500,000 - 5,000)

New EPS = $4,000,000 / 495,000

New EPS = $8.08 per share

Finally, we can calculate the new stock price as:

New stock price = New EPS x P/E ratio

New stock price = $8.08 per share x 20

New stock price = $161.60

Hence, the price of the stock =  $161.60 per share.

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assume that the canadian economy is currentyly in a short run equilibrium and the natural rate of unemployment is below the actual unemployment rate

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Assuming the Canadian economy is currently in a short run equilibrium and the natural rate of unemployment is below the actual unemployment rate, this suggests that there is cyclical unemployment.


In the case where the Canadian economy is currently in a short run equilibrium and the natural rate of unemployment is below the actual unemployment rate, this implies that there is a cyclical unemployment issue in the economy.

What is Cyclical unemployment?

Cyclical unemployment is the fluctuation of unemployment levels caused by changes in business cycles or in the general economic activity of an economy, that is to say, when the economy is performing poorly, then there will be higher unemployment rates.

Therefore, in this case, the economy is currently in a short run equilibrium which means that the demand and supply are equalized but the actual unemployment rate is still high. This indicates that there is a need for some policy measures to be taken to boost economic growth and reduce unemployment levels.

In conclusion, the economy being in a short run equilibrium, and the natural rate of unemployment being below the actual unemployment rate, points towards the presence of cyclical unemployment. Cyclical unemployment is the change in the level of unemployment as a result of changes in the business cycle or in the general economic activity of an economy.

The solution to this is for policy measures to be taken to boost economic growth and reduce unemployment levels.

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which of the following is not a component of the money market? group of answer choices real estate investment trusts repurchase agreements commercial paper eurodollars money market mutual funds

Answers

The correct answer is Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs).  REITs are investments in real estate rather than money market instruments. Money Market Mutual Funds, Repurchase Agreements, Commercial Paper, and Eurodollars are all components of the money market.

What is money market?

Money market refers to the trade of short-term loans, that have a maturity period of one year or less, such as Treasury bills and commercial papers. These securities are exchanged in the money market, which is a platform for issuing and buying these short-term debts for financial institutions and corporations.

The most popular financial instruments that are traded on the money market are certificates of deposits, commercial paper, Treasury bills, and short-term bonds. Some of the components of the money market include:

Repurchase agreements: This refers to a contract where an asset is purchased by one party and sold back to the other party in a specified time.

Commercial paper: These are short-term unsecured loans issued by large firms and corporations.

Money market mutual funds: These are mutual funds that invest in the money market, consisting of low-risk and short-term assets .

Eurodollars: This is a form of currency, which refers to U.S. dollars deposited in banks that are outside the United States. However, the component of the money market that is not included is real estate investment trusts.

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in order to increase support for the ruling party before the next general election, the government decrees that product z cannot be sold for more than $8.60. at a price of $8.60, what is the quantity supplied of product z?

Answers

Answer:

800

Explanation:

the following selected transactions apply to tiffany jewelers company for november and december year 1. november was the first month of operations. sales tax is collected at the time of sale but is not paid to the state sales tax agency until the following month. cash sales for november year 1 were $55,000, plus sales tax of 8 percent. tiffany jewelers company paid the november sales tax to the state agency on december 10, year 1. cash sales for december year 1 were $110,000, plus sales tax of 8 percent. required: use a horizontal financial statements model to show how each event affects the balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows. more specifically, record the amounts of the events into the model.

Answers

The company's December financial statements show $110,000 in sales revenue and $8,800 in sales tax payable.

For the Balance Sheet, the cash sales of $55,000 plus the 8% sales tax of $4,400 in November are recorded as revenue.

On the asset side, the sales tax of $4,400 is recorded as deferred revenue.

For the Income Statement, the cash sales of $55,000 plus the 8% sales tax of $4,400 in November are recorded as revenue.

The 8% sales tax of $4,400 is recorded as an expense.

For the Statement of Cash Flows, the cash sales of $55,000 in November are recorded as an increase in cash.

When Tiffany Jewelers Company paid the November sales tax of $4,400 to the state agency on December 10, Year 1, it is recorded as an outflow of cash.

Cash sales for December Year 1 were $110,000, plus a sales tax of 8%.

For the Balance Sheet, the cash sales of $110,000 plus the 8% sales tax of $8,800 in December are recorded as revenue. On the asset side, the sales tax of $8,800 is recorded as deferred revenue.

For the Income Statement, the cash sales of $110,000 plus the 8% sales tax of $8,800 in December are recorded as revenue. The 8% sales tax of $8,800 is recorded as an expense.

For the Statement of Cash Flows, the cash sales of $110,000 in December are recorded as an increase in cash.

There are no cash outflows since the December sales tax is not paid until the following month. Since sales tax is collected in December but not paid to the state agency until January, sales tax payable increases by $8,800 at the end of December.

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when consumers associate a brand with a certain level of quality and familiar attributes, consumers are able to make quick decisions. in this situation, the brand
a. Established novelty
b. Is the only one the consumer will consider
c. Facilitates purchasing
d. Reduces delivery costs
Creates brand reputation

Answers

When consumers associate a brand with a certain level of quality and familiar attributes, consumers are able to make quick decisions. In this situation, the brand facilitates purchasing. The correct option is c. Facilitates purchasing

What does a brand do?

A brand facilitates purchasing when consumers associate it with a certain level of quality and familiar attributes. Consumers are able to make quick decisions as a result of this. In conclusion, when a brand is associated with a particular level of quality and familiar characteristics, consumers are more likely to make quick purchasing decisions.

As a result, the brand has established a reputation that facilitates the buying process. This increases sales and revenue for the company, as well as establishes customer loyalty to the brand.

Therefore, the correct option is c.

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organizations frequently need to customize a vendor's enterprise resource planning (erp) software to integrate other business systems.True or false

Answers

Answer:

true.

Explanation:

Customer satisfaction depends on the customers view of quality. Name and describe four things that you would consider indicated a quality hospital experience.

Answers

Customer satisfaction depends on the customer's view of quality. The four things that can indicate a quality hospital: Respectful and Compassionate Care, Cleanliness and Safety, Quality Medical Care, and Patient-Centered Communication.

Customer satisfaction depends on the customers view of quality. The following are four things that can indicate a quality hospital experience:

1. Respectful and Compassionate Care: The hospital staff should be respectful, knowledgeable, and compassionate. They should treat patients with dignity and respect.

2. Cleanliness and Safety: The hospital should be clean and safe. It should be free of clutter and hazards and staff should be properly trained in infection control.

3. Quality Medical Care: Quality medical care should be provided. This includes up-to-date knowledge of best practices, access to advanced equipment, and a commitment to using evidence-based medicine.

4. Patient-Centered Communication: Communication between patients and hospital staff should be patient-centred. This means that information should be shared in a timely and clear manner, and all questions and concerns should be addressed in a respectful way.

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on january 1, 2020, mcilroy, inc., acquired a 60 percent interest in the common stock of stinson, inc., for $365,400. stinson's book value on that date consisted of common stock of $100,000 and retained earnings of $216,100. also, the acquisition-date fair value of the 40 percent noncontrolling interest was $243,600. the subsidiary held patents (with a 10-year remaining life) that were undervalued within the company's accounting records by $75,100 and an unrecorded customer list (15-year remaining life) assessed at a $50,700 fair value. any remaining excess acquisition-date fair value was assigned to goodwill. since acquisition, mcilroy has applied the equity method to its investment in stinson account and no goodwill impairment has occurred. at year-end, there are no intra-entity payables or receivables.

Answers

The value of Goodwill is -$320,100..

Calculate the goodwill

As per the details given in the question, the following points can be determined:

Acquisition price = $365,400

Book value of Stinson = $100,000 + $216,100 = $316,100

Fair value of non-controlling interest = 40% of $609,000 = $243,600

Value of patents = $75,100

Value of customer list = $50,700

Goodwill = Acquisition price - Fair value of identifiable net assets

Acquisition price = $365,400

Fair value of identifiable net assets = $100,000 + $216,100 + $243,600 + $75,100 + $50,700 = $685,500

Goodwill = $365,400 - $685,500= -$320,100

Therefore, Goodwill is -$320,100.

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which statement correctly describes a contract for deed? unset starred question contract for deed is another name for a deed of trust. the contract for deed is usually used in a seller-financed transaction. the contract for deed is usually used when a commercial lender is securing a mortgage loan. the parties to a contract for deed are the beneficiary and the vendee.

Answers

A contract for deed is usually used in a seller-financed transaction is the statement that correctly describes a contract for deed.

What is a contract for deed?

A contract for deed is an agreement in which the buyer pays for a property in installments until the balance is paid in full. The seller retains the deed and ownership of the property until the full purchase price is paid by the buyer.A contract for deed is a legal document that outlines the terms and conditions of a sale between two parties. The buyer and seller must agree on the sale price, the length of the repayment period, the interest rate, and other details of the transaction.When it comes to financing a purchase, a contract for deed is usually used in a seller-financed transaction. In this case, the seller serves as the lender, and the buyer agrees to make payments to the seller until the purchase price is paid in full. The seller retains the legal title to the property until the buyer fulfills the terms of the contract. The buyer receives equitable title to the property and has the right to occupy it while the payments are being made.The parties to a contract for deed are the buyer (also known as the vendee) and the seller (also known as the vendor). The seller retains the deed and ownership of the property until the full purchase price is paid by the buyer. Therefore, the statement "the parties to a contract for deed are the beneficiary and the vendee" is not correct as "beneficiary" is not a party to the contract for deed.

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________ is defined as information containing patterns, relationships, and trends.
A) Process mining
B) Business process management
C) Business intelligence
D) Spatial intelligence

Answers

Business intelligence is defined as information containing patterns, relationships, and trends. It is the collection of data and technologies. The correct option is C.

What is Business intelligence?

Business intelligence refers to the collection of data and technologies that help businesses evaluate and derive insights from their data in order to make smarter decisions.

Business intelligence (BI) software allows businesses to rapidly aggregate, analyze, and display data to get real-time insights into their operations. Business intelligence has become increasingly important to businesses in recent years as data volumes have exploded.

The term “big data” refers to this phenomenon. Businesses need to be able to easily process, manage, and make sense of the data in order to benefit from it, which is where business intelligence comes in.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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as an information security analyst, you are asked by the chief financial officer (cfo) to review accounting records to ensure that no staff altered the financial statements the night before they were published. which security objective may have been violated?

Answers

The security objective that may have been violated in this scenario is the integrity objective. Integrity implies that data should not be changed or modified in an unauthorized manner.

In this case, the CFO asked you to review accounting records to ensure that no staff had altered the financial statements before they were published. This means that the CFO is looking to ensure the integrity of the financial statements.

In order to protect the integrity of data, organizations should use encryption and access control mechanisms to restrict and monitor access to sensitive information. Additionally, organizations should also implement logging and auditing processes that can be used to detect any unauthorized access to the financial data. Furthermore, organizations should also have regular reviews of the accounting records to ensure accuracy and integrity.

To summarize, the security objective that may have been violated in this scenario is the integrity objective. Organizations should implement a variety of security measures to protect the integrity of their financial data and ensure that unauthorized changes are not made to the records.

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serious and costly business scandals led to the passage of a federal statute known as the sarbanes-oxley act. one specific profession targeted by the act is: blank .

Answers

Serious and costly business scandals led to the passage of a federal statute known as the sarbanes-oxley act. One specific profession targeted by the act is the auditing profession.

What is the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, also known as the Public Company Accounting Reform and Investor Protection Act of 2002, is a federal statute passed in response to a number of serious and costly corporate scandals in the United States, most notably the Enron scandal. It is one of the most far-reaching securities legislation enacted since the U.S. Securities Act of 1933 and the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. It was passed with the intention of reforming corporate governance and accountability, as well as boosting transparency in financial reporting and business practices.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act aims to safeguard the interests of investors by requiring higher levels of transparency and accountability among corporations that have publicly traded shares. It was targeted primarily at auditing firms, which were accused of not properly auditing the financial statements of their clients. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act has improved corporate governance by requiring public companies to adopt various procedures and checks to prevent corporate fraud, and it has also established more stringent internal controls over financial reporting.

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Allocation of Package Purchase Price Tamock Company purchased a plant from one of its suppliers. The $975,000 purchase price included the land, a building, and factory machinery. Tamock also paid $5,000 in legal fees to negotiate the purchase of the plant. An appraisal showed the following values for the items purchased. PropertyAssessed Value Land$126,000 Building486,000 Machinery288,000 Total$900,000 Using the assessed value as a guide, allocate the total purchase price of the plant to the land, building, and machinery accounts in Tamock Company’s records.

Answers

Tamock Company purchased a plant from one of its suppliers for a total purchase price of $975,000.

An appraisal showed that the land was assessed at $126,000, the building at $486,000, and the machinery at $288,000. This adds up to a total assessed value of $900,000. Using the assessed values as a guide, the following allocation of the purchase price can be made to the land, building, and machinery accounts in Tamock Company's records:

Land - $126,000  Building - $486,000Machinery - $288,000Legal Fees - $5,000Total - $975,000

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an example of a voluntary export restraint occurs when a consumer products company sells to a foreign market that recently entered into a trade agreement with neighboring countries. True or False

Answers

False. A voluntary export restraint occurs when a government imposes a limit on the amount of goods that a country can export to another country. It is not related to a trade agreement between neighboring countries.

What is voluntary export restraint?

A voluntary export restraint is a sort of trade restriction in which a country or exporting country agrees to restrict its exports of a particular product to another country. VERs are frequently offered in response to a complaint from an importing country, as they assist avoid the possible escalation of a trade dispute.

VERs can also be established through negotiations between two governments. VERs are imposed by exporting countries, not importing countries, and are often followed by protectionist barriers like quotas or tariffs imposed by the importing country. The imposition of VERs is intended to avert the possibility of a trade conflict.

What are trade agreements?

Trade agreements are legally binding agreements between two or more countries that dictate the terms of how they will trade with one another. They are intended to lower trade barriers such as tariffs and quotas, as well as to improve trading conditions for businesses.

A trade agreement can help companies expand their businesses by providing access to new markets, as well as by lowering costs through reduced tariffs and other trade barriers.

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WTO rules allow countries to _____ foreign goods that are being sold cheaper than at home, or below their cost of production, even when domestic producers can show that they are being harmed.
A. impose antidumping duties on
B. subsidize
C. lower the import quota on
D. place countervailing duties on

Answers

WTO rules allow countries to impose antidumping duties on foreign goods that are being sold cheaper than at home, or below their cost of production, even when domestic producers can show that they are being harmed. Hence option a. is correct.

What is anti-dumping duties?

Anti-dumping duties are tariffs that the government imposes on imported products to protect domestic industries from foreign companies' unfair pricing practices.

When foreign goods are sold at prices below their cost of production or below domestic prices, it is called dumping.

To ensure fair competition, countries can impose anti-dumping duties, and the World Trade Organization (WTO) oversees these tariffs. The WTO's Anti-Dumping Agreement governs the use of anti-dumping duties.

Dumping can have a negative effect on domestic industries, as the lower prices of imported goods often lead to decreased demand for domestic products.

As a result, countries may impose anti-dumping duties to compensate for the unfair advantage given to foreign companies.

In addition to imposing antidumping duties, countries can also place countervailing duties on foreign goods that benefit from subsidies.

Hence option a. is correct.

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