HELP ME PLEASE FAST!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! DUE IN 4 MIN!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Answer :  = -16

hope it helped! :)

:D

Answer:

160cm^2

The area of the rectangle minus the area of the right angled triangle (20×10-8×10÷2)

Answer:

38:45

Step-by-step explanation:

First, add them all together. This is 90. Next, subtract 14. This is 76. Now simplify. I could only simplify down to 38:45

Hope this helps:)

Answer:

The triangle and the square have the same area because they both have four squares

Step-by-step explanation:

The square has four that are easily shown but the triangle has one full one but when two are split together like some of them when you put the two together they equal one whole.

Have a wonderful day/night/afternoon

Answer:

2/5 x 5/9 = 10/45

Simplified: 2/9

Good Luck! I hope this helps! :)

Answer:

here's a tip: (use the equation to get the triangle area/length, then find the surface area of the entire thing). Anyways, I think the answer might be ether 268m squared or 853m squared.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps you!

Answer:

402.62

Step-by-step explanation:

4*22=88

7.21*22=158.62

6*22=132

2((6*4)/2)=24

add them all up=402.62

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

To do this you need to simplify (4^3)^5

To do this, simply multiply the powers

So, it would be 3x5

3x5=15

so the answer would be 4^15, which is D

Answer:

4^15

Step-by-step explanation:

( 4^3 )^5

Formula : -

( a^m )^n = a^(mn)

Here,

a = 4

m = 3

n = 5

( 4^3 )^5

= 4^( 3*5 )

= 4^15

Answer:because it shows how the shape on the right is the same as the one on the left, just after being enlarged

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B. $1.34

Step-by-step explanation:

5.36 ÷ 4

=536×1/4×1/100

=536/400

=1.34

Answer:

5.(4,6) 6. (2,9) 7. (0,4)

1-4 i dont know

Answer: Julyssa is right

Step-by-step explanation: According to PEMDAS, multiplication goes first (before) addition so

3 + (4x4)

3 + 16

= 19

PEMDAS

PARENTHESES

EXPONENTS

MULTIPLICATION

DIVISION

ADDITION

SUBTRACTION

Answer:

19 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the blue ribbon needs to be 7 inches longer than the red ribbon, add 7 to 12 to get 19 inches total.

Hopefully this helps- let me know if you have any questions!

Hey there!

Let's make an equation 28evbar01

=> Convert word problem into equation

7 - x = 12

x = 12 + 7

x = 19

Therefore, Blue ribbon is 19 inches

hope this helps

please mark me brainiest

Answer:

546

Step-by-step explanation:

Sofia slept 546 miles and was awake for 45% which is 294 of the miles.

You can find this by finding 1%, and that would be 8.4. (You get 1% from dividing 100 from the 100% number.) Then you multiply it by 65 so now you get 546.

If the total length of the trip was 840 miles, then Sofia had traveled 294 miles before she fell asleep.

Given that,

If Sofia slept through the last 65% of the trip and the total length of the trip was 840 miles,

then she stayed awake for the first 100% - 65% = 35% of the trip.

Here, we have to calculate the distance she traveled before falling asleep, we can use the percentage of the total distance:

Distance traveled by Sofia = 35% of 840 miles

Distance traveled by Sofia = 0.35 * 840

Distance traveled by Sofia = 294 miles

So, Sofia had traveled 294 miles before she fell asleep.

To learn more on percentage click:

brainly.com/question/13450942

#SPJ3

I think C but I’m not for sure sorry

Answer:

160

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of base x height

Area of base= 15x3=45

45 x height= 45 x 4

45 x 4= 180

Answer:

37.68 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

Circumference = diameter *  π

= 12 * π

=  37.68 feet.

Answer:

y ≤ 0

Step-by-step explanation:

y ≤ 0

< or >: dashed line

≤ or ≥: solid line

≤ or <: shade below the line

≥ or >: shade above the line

Here we have:

a solid like (possibilities: ≤ or ≥)

shades below the line (≤)

Final answer, y ≤ 0

Hope this helps!

Answer:

The inequality is D) y is less than or equal to 0

Step-by-step explanation:

The yellow shaded area is on the 0 line and below it, making it less than or equal to 0.

-I hope this helps!

area of circle :- π r²

[tex] \frac{22}{7} \times 3 \times 3 \: ft {}^{2} \\ \frac{22}{7} \times 9 {ft}^{2} \\ \frac{198}{7} = 28.26 {ft}^{2} [/tex]

Answer:

A.

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula (i believe) is:

A = 2r[tex]\pi[/tex]

A = 2(3)(3.14)

A = (6)(3.14)

A = 18.84

The answer i got is 18.84

hope this helps :)

Answer:

6/41

Step-by-step explanation:

6 + 7 + 20 + 8 = 41 so that is number of tiles he took. 6 of those were 41 so therefore, the chance is 6/41

Answer:

There are four red marbles and six blue marbles in all, for a total of ten marbles.

Without replacement, the probability of the first marble being blue is 6/10, while the probability of the second marble being red is 4/9.

The probability of both events occurring is reduced to 4/15 by multiplying 6/10 * 4/9 = 24/90.

Step-by-step explanation:

Mark me brainliest

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

Two ways we can solve this problem:

1. Graphically

2. Mathematically

Because you already solved it graphically, I will show you how to do so mathematically. Of course, graphically is much much easier and more efficient in this problem.

Let's break the problem down.

First, we are given a graph which contains a slope.

To find slope, we use the technique -> rise/run

Picking 2 obvious points from the graph, we can see

1st point -> (10, 20)

2nd point -> (40, 80)

Now, let's find the slope

[tex]\frac{80-20}{40-10} = \frac{60}{30} = 2[/tex]

Now, we have an equation y = 2x, where y = number of pies and x = cups of sugar

We want to find how many cups of sugar we need to bake 80 pies. Simply substitute 80 = number of pies = y

y = 2x -> 80 = 2x

Solving for x, divide both sides by 2

40 = x

We need 40 cups of sugar.

Answer:

3120 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1560 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

52*60/2

Height*Length/2

1560 square inches

Answer:

CAB

Step-by-step explanation:

12x - 6 = 10

divide both sides by 2

6x - 3 = 5

add 3 to both sides

6x = 8

multiply both sides by 1/6

x = 4/3

I don't know how you want to write the answer but this is how you get each equation :/

Answer:

CAB

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Im pretty sure its C... Step-by-step explanation: what im seeing here is 10 with the small numbers in front so it looks like scientific notation, Maria has 1 million because 1 x a number = that number, 10 multiplied by itself 6 times equals 1 million, 10 x10 = 100 x 10 = 1000 x 10 = 10,000 x 10 = 100,000 x 10 = 1,000,000. so from this we know what Larry's 10 to the power of 5 is, we need to know what 100,000 x whatever equals. If im doing this right, Larry's number is 1 million 2 hundred thousand which is greater than 1 million. (sorry if the explanation is wanky and sorry if it was wrong, im new to brainly.)

Answer:

hee-hee!

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the circles diameter is 15 mm. We can tell that by looking at the side of the rectangle. It says 15 mm.

Either way, we use the formula to find the area of a circle:

A = [tex]\pi[/tex]d

A = (3.14)(15)

A = 47.1

The area of the circle is 47.1. (i think?)

sowwy if it took long

Answer:

426.45 mm

Step-by-step explanation:

find the area of the circle by multiplying the radius by pi(3.14) then you would subtract that from the area of the rectangle. Hope this helps

Answer:

hi

Step-by-step explanation: