FILL IN THE BLANK. According to the revisions made for DSM-5, most people previously diagnosed with __________ will now be diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder.hypochondriasisfactitious disorderbody dysmorphic disorderdissociative disorder

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Answer 1

According to the revisions made for DSM-5, most people previously diagnosed with hypochondriasis will now be diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder.

Persistent, unpleasant physical sensations that may or may not have a clear medical cause, together with excessive thoughts, feelings, or actions connected to those symptoms, are the hallmarks of somatic symptom disorder.

This diagnosis is designed to incorporate a broader spectrum of physical symptoms and related psychological experiences, and to promote a more holistic and integrated approach to understanding and treating these illnesses.  

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Related Questions

Why should we be able to distinguish between feeling scared and being threatened? 

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

It is important to be able to distinguish between feeling scared and being threatened because they are not the same thing and require different responses. Feeling scared is an emotional response to a perceived threat or danger, while being threatened is an actual danger or harm that is imminent.

If someone is feeling scared, they may be experiencing anxiety, nervousness, or fear, but they are not necessarily in immediate danger. They may need support, reassurance, or coping strategies to manage their fear and reduce their stress levels.

On the other hand, if someone is being threatened, they are facing an actual danger or harm that requires immediate action to protect themselves or others. This may involve calling for help, seeking safety, or using self-defense strategies.

Being able to distinguish between feeling scared and being threatened can help individuals respond appropriately to the situation and take the necessary steps to ensure their safety and well-being.

which of the following is true of the positive reinforcement theory of psychological explanations of drug abuse

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Out of given choices, ''It occurs when an individual receives a pleasurable experience,'' is true of the positive reinforcement theory of the psychological explanation of the drug abuse. Therefore, the option A holds true.

Drug abuse is a concept that can be easily explained in terms of using intoxicants and addictive drug substance for pleasure, and not under prescription of a medical practitioner under specific bodily conditions. Drug abuse tends to happen only when the individual who consumes it undergoes a pleasurable experience.

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Identify a characteristic associated with the positive reinforcement for drug use.

A. It occurs when an individual receives a pleasurable experience.

B. It occurs when an individual does something to seek relief or to avoid pain.

C. None of the above

D. All of the above

On June 25, 1950, the United States united North Korea and South Korea.

T or F

Answers

That is false, On June 25, 1950, North Korea invaded South Korea

Label the countries of North America.
Create your own symbols for oil, iron, coal, copper, gold, and silver. Use the symbols to show where these natural resources are available in North America.
Political map of the world
© 2011 Map Resources
**Remember—maps distort the shape of the Earth's surface, especially closer to the poles. Greenland appears to be much larger on this map than it would on another type of map, larger than it is from space or on a globe.**
Part 2–Define each of the following terms in your own words:
Natural resources
Diversification
Trade
Import
Export
Efficient
Risk

Answers

Natural resources-  Anything that is found in nature that can be used by living things is a natural resource. This includes water, forests, fossil fuels, minerals, plants, animals and even air.

Diversification- Diversification is a risk management technique that manage risk by allocating investments across different financial instruments, industries, and several other categories.

Trade- Trade is an act or process of buying, selling or exchanging goods and services. Trade, in general, is of two types. They are Internal trade and International trade.

Import - An import is any product that's produced abroad and then brought into another country.

Export- Goods and services produced in one country but supplied to buyers in another are known as exports.

Efficient-  Efficiency is the ability of professionals to use the available resources, time, and money to achieve the company's goals.

Risk  - A risk, in a business context, is anything that threatens an organization's ability to generate profits at its target levels.

Some instances of resources?

Natural resources include things like stone, sand, metals, coal, oil, and natural gas. Air, sunshine, soil, and water are other natural resources. Moreover, natural resources include fish, plants, birds, and animals. Food, fuel, and raw materials for the produce of commodities are all made from natural resources.

Are resources crucial?

Humans want resources for the reasons: Humans' wants and comforts are met when resources are employed as a raw material. Agriculture relies on natural resources, which increases its economic significance.

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how are various types of media convergence shaping the digital age at an individual and social level? ​

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Answer/Explanation:

The term "media convergence" describes the blending of digital and conventional media, including the internet, social media, and mobile devices, as well as traditional media outlets like print, radio, and television. There have been major and far-reaching effects of media convergence on people and society. These are some examples of how media convergence is influencing the social and personal aspects of the digital era.

Access to Information: Because of media convergence, it is now simpler for people to find information online from a wide range of sources, including blogs, podcasts, social media, and online news websites. This has increased the variety of ideas and opinions that are available to individuals and has contributed to the development of a more informed populace.

Media Convergence: A few major firms now control a sizable percentage of the media industry. This has resulted in a consolidation of media ownership. Concerns have been expressed concerning the possibility of media bias and the effect of media consolidation on democracy as a result.

The digital age has been significantly impacted by media convergence, which has shaped how people access and use media, participate in media, and communicate with one another. As well as providing fresh chances for learning and participation.

TRUE OR FALSE the elite model presupposes a small group of leaders who are defined primarily by their inherited wealth.

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The elite model presupposes a small group of leaders who are defined primarily by their inherited wealth is FALSE.

                                   

The elite model of power suggests that power in society is concentrated among a small group of individuals who are considered the elite or ruling class. This group may be defined by a variety of factors such as wealth, social status, political influence, or access to resources. While inherited wealth may be one factor that contributes to an individual's position in the elite class, it is not the only defining characteristic. In fact, many individuals who are considered part of the elite class have achieved their status through their own efforts, such as through education, business success, or political power.

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which of the following queries returns countries that have no capital city? select * from country where capital

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Nauru is one of the queries returns countries that have no capital city. It is the third smallest country in area wise and 2nd smallest population wise.

What makes Nauru so well-known?

Nauru, the world's smallest island republic with an area of about eight square miles, is only marginally bigger than the Vatican City and Monaco, the two tiniest nations in the world. There are no protected parks, rivers, or World Heritage Sites.

Was Nauru the richest nation on Earth?

Phosphate activities were taken over by the government of independent Nauru in 1970, and for a brief period in the 1980s, Nauru was among the richest nations in the world in terms of GDP per capita.

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35. In the Articles of Confederation, all the power was in the hands of the states.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

True, the articles basically just places most power to state governments.

Explanation:

The Articles of Confederation was the first constitution of the 13 American states, adopted in 1781 and replaced in 1789 by the Constitution of the United States.

What were the powers granted to Congress under the Articles of Confederation?

The Articles of Confederation actually gave very little governing power to Congress and reserved most to the states. Congress didn’t even have the power to tax. Congress under the Articles was, if anything, more of a policy-setting body than an instrument of government.

The major reason for this is that the states were zealous of their own sovereignty, and one of their few uniting principles was the right to self-determination. That spirit allowed the states to ally and fight the Revolution, but it also meant they distrusted each other’s ability to preserve their hard-fought independence.

Certainly there was no appetite to create a unitary, empowered executive that could, in their opinion, simply become a new form of oppressive monarchy.

So the states gave Congress the bare minimum authorities to coordinate policies that could affect the whole of the polity, but it wasn’t until it became obvious how badly some kind of central authority was needed to prevent economic collapse that the Constitution became a viable alternative.

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Why does wilson believe that the judges will act intrepidity in exercising judicial review

Answers

Answer:

Why does wilson believe that the judges will act intrepidity in exercising judicial review

Explanation:

See the image

Discuss the importance of researching a post school destination before making a final decision (4 reaosons)

Answers

Answer:

Researching a post-school destination is an essential step for students to make informed decisions regarding their future. Here are four reasons why researching a post-school destination is important:

Career opportunities: Researching post-school destinations enables students to identify the career opportunities that are available in their preferred fields. This helps students make informed decisions regarding the courses they need to study and the universities or colleges that offer relevant programs.

Cost of living: Researching a post-school destination helps students identify the cost of living in different areas. This information can help students decide whether they can afford to live in a particular area and whether they can manage their finances while pursuing their education.

Quality of education: Different universities and colleges have different strengths and weaknesses, and researching post-school destinations enables students to identify the educational institutions that offer high-quality education. This can help students choose a university or college that can help them achieve their academic goals.

Student life: Researching a post-school destination helps students understand what student life is like in different areas. This includes identifying social activities, cultural events, and community service opportunities. This information can help students choose a destination that suits their interests and personality.

In summary, researching a post-school destination before making a final decision is crucial for students to make informed decisions regarding their future.

Your general purpose is to _____ when you wish to reinforce, change, or influence the attitudes, beliefs, values, or actions of your audience.

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Your general purpose is to persuade when you wish to reinforce, change, or influence the attitudes, beliefs, values, or actions of your audience.

When delivering a speech, presentation, or any form of communication, the general purpose is to persuade the audience when the intention is to reinforce, change or influence their attitudes, beliefs, values, or actions. Persuasion can take various forms, such as motivating someone to take action, convincing them to change their point of view, or reinforcing their current stance on a particular topic. In order to be effective in persuasion, it is essential to understand the audience and their current beliefs and attitudes. Additionally, persuasive communication must include evidence, logical reasoning, and appeals to emotions to make a compelling argument that resonates with the audience.

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true/false. The most frequent method for setting performance goals is called management by objectives (MBO), which is a system of collaborative goal setting that extends from the top of an organization to the bottom.)

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A system in which people at each position of the association set pretensions in a top-down process, so that workers at all situations contribute to the overall pretensions of the association; these pretensions come the norms for assessing each hand's performance.

Operation by objects( MBO) is a process in which a director and an hand agree on specific performance pretensions and also develop a plan to reach them.

It's designed to align objects throughout an association and boost hand participation and commitment.

A system in which people at each position of the association set pretensions in a process that flows from top to bottom, so that workers at all situations contribute to the overall pretensions of the association; these pretensions come the norms for assessing each hand's performance.

operation by objects helps workers appreciate their on- the- job places and liabilities.

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Which of the following has access to personally identifiable data without authorization or subpeona?
a. insurance company for life insurance
b. patient's attorney
c. public health department for disease reporting purposes
d. worker's comp. for disability claim settlement

Answers

Option c-public health department for disease reporting purposes would have access to personally identifiable data without authorization or subpeona.

This access is granted to public health officials under HIPAA's Privacy Rule, which allows covered entities, including public health authorities, to access and use individually identifiable health information to carry out public health activities, such as disease reporting and surveillance, without obtaining an individual's authorization.

Under HIPAA's Privacy Rule, covered entities (such as healthcare providers, health plans, and healthcare clearinghouses) are required to protect the privacy of individuals' health information, including individually identifiable health information. However, the Privacy Rule also allows for certain disclosures of this information without the individual's authorization or consent for certain public health activities.

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When those in government exercise power recognized by citizens as right and proper, they are exercising ______. a. authority b. leadership c. justice

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When those in government exercise power recognized by citizens as right and proper, they exercise authority. Authority refers to the legitimate power or right to give commands, enforce rules, and make decisions accepted by the people being governed.

The power is recognized as valid and just by the people who are subject to it. Conversely, leadership is the ability to inspire, motivate, and guide others toward a common goal or vision. Justice refers to the quality of being fair and equitable, particularly in the administration of the law.

While exercising authority may involve aspects of leadership and justice, it primarily refers to the power to make decisions and enforce rules that are accepted as valid by the governed.

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true/false. strategy decisions involve issues such as the number and location of warehouses and the selection of appropriate transportation modes.

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The given statement is "strategy decisions involve issues such as the number and location of warehouses " is true because strategy decisions involve issues such as the number and location of warehouses and the selection of appropriate transportation modes.

These  opinions are critical to the success of an association as they're important for the overall  effectiveness of the  force chain. The number and  position of  storages will affect the time and cost of storing and distributing goods, while the choice of transportation mode will affect the speed and cost of delivery.

It's important to precisely consider these  opinions to  insure that the most cost-effective and effective strategy is chosen.

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trisha guidelines specify which of the following for purposes of trade involving equity index options

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D. Trisha guidelines provide guidance on acceptable trading practices and the use of index options in hedging strategies.

The guidelines were developed by the Options Industry Council (OIC) in conjunction with the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) and are designed to protect the interests of pension plan participants. The guidelines provide detailed information on acceptable trading practices and strategies that can be used to hedge against market volatility, including the use of index options. They also outline the risks associated with trading in these products and provide guidance on how to manage these risks effectively. It is important for traders to be familiar with the Trisha guidelines when trading equity index options to ensure compliance with industry best practices and to protect the interests of pension plan participants.

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Correct question:

Which of the following statements is true regarding Trisha guidelines for trade involving equity index options?

A. Trisha guidelines only apply to trades involving individual stocks, not index options.

B. Trisha guidelines specify the minimum number of contracts that must be traded for each transaction.

C. Trisha guidelines prohibit trading in equity index options altogether.

D. Trisha guidelines provide guidance on acceptable trading practices and the use of index options in hedging strategies.

in most bailments, the bailee can retain the goods given by the bailor and return equivalent property.

Answers

Generally speaking, this statement is untrue. Instead of keeping the goods and returning equivalent property, the bailee is typically required to return the exact property that was given to them by the bailor.

This is so that the bailee can be expected to take reasonable care to preserve and protect the property while it is in their possession as they are in a position of trust and responsibility with regard to it. The bailee may be accountable for any damage or loss that occurs to the property while it is in their custody, and is generally not authorized to use or dispose of the property for their personal gain without the bailor's approval.

The bailee may, however, be permitted to return equivalent commodities in particular circumstances rather than the original goods. For instance, the bailee may be permitted to return an equivalent item of equal value if the original goods were perishable and deteriorated while in the bailee's possession. The bailee may also be permitted to do so provided the bailor consented to receiving an equal property in place of the original commodities.

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culture practices in Ghana that needs to be modified​

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Answer:El papel de la cultura en el desarrollo ha sido cada vez más reconocido en los últimos años gracias a una serie de actividades nacionales de promoción. Las referencias a la relación simbiótica entre la cultura y el desarrollo se pueden encontrar en documentos clave como la Política Cultural de Ghana (2004), el Programa de Crecimiento y Desarrollo Compartido de Ghana (2010-2013) y el Plan Nacional de Desarrollo del Turismo (2013-2027). El reto es asegurarse de que se considere toda la gama de beneficios de la cultura y que la cultura sea sistemáticamente incorporada como un componente decisivo y sostenible en los planes nacionales de desarrollo. La nueva abundancia de datos sobre la cultura y el desarrollo, que resultó de la implementación de los IUCD, ha hecho posible ilustrar empíricamente la contribución multidimensional de la cultura al desarrollo y promover una mayor integración en los planes nacionales de desarrollo. Los hechos y las cifras generadas ya han dado lugar a debates constantes entre las agencias de la ONU y su compromiso con la integración de la cultura en el próximo MANUD (Marco de Asistencia de las Naciones Unidas para el Desarrollo) para Ghana.

Explanation:espero te ayude

A model that describes behavior as learned by observing or modeling others behavior as well as by the presence of punishment and rewards is known as

Answers

A model that describes behavior as learned by observing or modeling others behavior as well as by the presence of punishment and rewards is known as social learning theory.

Social learning theory was developed by psychologist Albert Bandura.

According to social learning theory, people learn through observation, modeling, and the consequences of their actions, including rewards and punishments. This theory emphasizes the role of social interaction in the learning process and suggests that people can learn new behaviors by watching others, even without direct reinforcement or punishment.

Social learning theory suggests that people learn by observing and imitating the behavior of others. This includes not only the specific actions that people take, but also the attitudes and beliefs that underlie those actions.

The theory suggests that individuals are more likely to imitate behavior that they perceive to be rewarded, and less likely to imitate behavior that is punished.

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which of the following is not a good proxy record when attempting to reconstruct the paleoclimate of a given region going back millions of years?

Answers

Modeling future human behavior is not a good proxy record when attempting to reconstruct the paleoclimate of a given region going back millions of years. So, option D is correct.

Proxy records are indirect measurements of past climate conditions and include natural archives such as tree rings, sediment cores, ice cores, coral, and the remains of microorganisms like diatoms and forams. These proxy records can be used to reconstruct past temperature, precipitation, and atmospheric conditions, allowing researchers to better understand long-term climate trends and variability.

These proxy data are environmental physical qualities that have been retained and can be used in place of actual measurements. Paleoclimatologists collect proxy data from historical records, corals, pollen, ice cores, tree rings, caves, pack rat middens, ocean and lake sediments, and other natural recorders of climatic variations.

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The complete question is:

Which of the following is not a good proxy record when attempting to reconstruct the paleoclimate of a given region going back millions of years?

A) Diatoms

B) Forams

C) Coral

D) Modeling future human behavior

which of the following statements about the sleeper effect and its impact on persuasion are accurate and which are not?

Answers

The sleeper effect refers to the phenomenon where people initially discount information coming from a low-credibility source but may later be persuaded by it as they forget the source of the information. The following statements about the sleeper effect and its impact on persuasion are accurate:

The sleeper effect is more likely to occur when the message is initially perceived as negative, threatening, or counter-attitudinal.

The sleeper effect is more likely to occur when there is a delay between receiving the message and being asked to evaluate it.

The sleeper effect is more likely to occur in situations where the receiver has a low level of involvement or interest in the topic.

However, the following statement is not accurate:

4. The sleeper effect is always a positive outcome of persuasion. In some cases, the sleeper effect can lead to negative consequences if the information is inaccurate or if the source is unreliable.

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which of the following statements about the sleeper effect and its impact on persuasion are accurate and which are not?

Where do you configure validation rules?
In the validation overview of the module
At project level
In the entity properties
In the association properties

Answers

In the entity properties is where you configure validation rules in most data modeling tools, including Microsoft Dynamics and Power Apps.

When you create or edit an entity in these tools, you can go to the entity's properties and set validation rules for each field in the entity. These rules can include things like required fields, data type constraints, range checks, and custom validation logic.

By setting validation rules at the entity level, you can ensure that any data entered into the system meets the desired quality and consistency standards, helping to improve the accuracy and reliability of your data.

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no one has proved that the lost continent of atlantis doesn't exist. therefore, the lost continent of atlantis probably does exist.

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According to the provided choices of alternatives in the above situation, it may be stated that the condition is an example of appeal to ignorance fallacy. Therefore, the option A holds true.

Appeal to Ignorance may be taken into a general sense of understanding as the concept wherein a person may be linked to doing or not doing a thing that is often used to shift the burden of proof to other individuals. It is also an example of a fallacy as per the rules of language. When there is no proof that something exists, and still individuals assume it to be true, then it is an example of an appeal of ignorance.

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Complete question

No one has proved that the lost continent of Atlantis doesn't exist. Therefore, the lost continent of Atlantis probably does exist. Identify the fallacy.

A. appeal to ignorance

B. appeal to pity

C. appeal to awareness

D. appeal to society, in general

FILL IN THE BLANK.A(n) _____ is a new religion with few followers, whose teachings and practices put it at odds with the dominant culture and religion.

Answers

A(n) cult is a new religion with few followers, whose teachings and practices put it at odds with the dominant culture and religion

A cult is a new religion with a small number of adherents whose beliefs and practices are in opposition to the mainstream culture and religion. A charismatic leader who has a big impact on his or her followers is a common feature of cults. People who are disillusioned or dissatisfied with their current religious or cultural identity may find appeal in their distinctive beliefs and practices, which may differ from those of mainstream religions.

Cults can, however, also be harmful because they may encourage risky or abusive behaviors, cut off members from their families and communities, and take advantage of their members for personal gain or other objectives. When thinking about joining a new religious movement, it is imperative to exercise caution and research.

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In human resource management, _____ usually refers to teaching operational or technical employees how to do the job for which they were hired.a. developmentb. job rotationc. deskillingd. job specializatione. training

Answers

In human resource management, "training" refers to the process of teaching and instructing employees to perform specific job-related tasks and activities, as well as providing them with the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities to effectively carry out their job responsibilities.

This training can cover a wide range of areas, including job-specific skills, company policies and procedures, safety protocols, and compliance with industry regulations. By providing effective training programs, organizations can improve employee performance, enhance job satisfaction, and increase overall productivity. Training can be delivered through various methods, including on-the-job training, classroom instruction, online courses, and workshops.

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When one repeats a behavior to the point of it becoming established or commonplace, ______ has occurred. A. habituation. B. conditioning. C. repetition

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According to the choices of alternatives provided above, it is to be said that habituation occurs when a person repeats a behavior to the point of it becoming his or her established commonplace. Therefore, the option A holds true.

Habituation is to be explained as a concept of general understanding as a situation wherein a person or an individual performs activities as a part of his or her habits, and makes it a part of his or her own lifestyle. It is to be taken into consideration that habituation can be established or demolished based on the individuals' liking.

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Jasper and Julianna are playing the Quiz Show. The moderator tosses a coin to determine who will be the quiz master and who will be the contestant. Jasper is the quiz master. He then proceeds asks the Julianna five trivia questions of his choosing. Afterwards the audience rates them both on general knowledge. What will the ratings likely show? (2 pts.) Why? (1 pt.) What is this a demonstration of? (2 pts.)

Answers

Answer:

Jasper is probably rated as having more general knowledge than Julianna based on the ratings. This is due to the fact that Jasper had the option of selecting the quiz questions for Julianna, and as the quiz master, he most likely selected questions to which he had the answers while Julianna did not.

Explanation:

Jasper is probably rated as having more general knowledge than Julianna based on the ratings. This is due to the fact that Jasper had the option of selecting the quiz questions for Julianna, and as the quiz master, he most likely selected questions to which he had the answers while Julianna did not.

This serves as an illustration of how prejudice can develop when one individual has more power or influence than another. Even though Julianna and Jasper may have had identical general knowledge levels, Jasper's position as quiz master provided him the upper hand in this situation. It also illustrates how crucial it is to take into account the possibility of prejudice in any circumstance where one individual has more authority or influence than another.

Which of the following is a moral hazard effect of Social Security?
a. Retirees die sooner than they would without Social Security.
b. Workers retire sooner than they would without Social Security.
c. Retirees buy less health insurance than they would without Social Security.
d. Workers work longer and become more unhealthy than they would without Social Security.
e. Retirees suffer on-the-job injuries more as a result of Social Security.

Answers

The moral hazard effect of Social Security refers to the idea that individuals may change their behavior in response to the availability of Social Security benefits. Based on this, the correct option is b. Workers retire sooner than they would without Social Security.

Social Security benefits can create a moral hazard by providing a financial safety net that allows workers to retire earlier than they otherwise would have, potentially reducing their incentive to save for retirement or continue working.

The moral hazard effect of Social Security is a well-known concept in economics and has been extensively studied by economists. This effect is more pronounced among low-income workers who are more reliant on Social Security benefits. Therefore, the correct option is b.

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research by the public agenda organization found that the number one reason students gave for dropping out of college is which of these?

Answers

According to research by the Public Agenda organization, the number one reason students gave for dropping out of college is the need to work and earn money.

Many students are unable to balance the demands of college with the need to work to support themselves or their families. They may struggle to find enough time to study and attend classes, or may not have the financial resources to pay for tuition, textbooks, and other expenses. Other common reasons for dropping out of college include difficulty adjusting to college life, academic challenges, and personal or family issues. Addressing these challenges and providing support for students who are at risk of dropping out can help improve college completion rates and increase access to higher education for all students.

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which of the following accurately identifies a difference between habitual decision making and extended problem solving?

Answers

The level of involvement for habitual decision making is lower than it is for extended problem solving. Option(c)

Habitual decision making and extended problem solving are two types of consumer decision-making processes. Habitual decision making occurs when consumers make quick, automatic decisions based on limited information and prior experience with a product. On the other hand, extended problem solving occurs when consumers put more time and effort into making a decision, often when faced with a new or important purchase.

A key difference between these two processes is the level of involvement and effort put forth by the consumer. Habitual decision making is generally low-involvement and requires little effort, while extended problem solving is high-involvement and requires significant effort and information gathering.

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Full Question: Which of the following accurately identifies a difference between habitual decision making and extended problem solving?

A) Extended problem solving uses behavioral learning, while habitual decision making relies upon cognitive learning.

B) Consumers engaged in extended problem solving perceive less risk than consumers involved in habitual decision making.

C) The level of involvement for habitual decision making is lower than it is for extended problem solving.

D) Habitual decision making involves significant cognitive dissonance, while extended problem solving rarely involves cognitive dissonance.

E) Consumers who are seeking to develop their loyalty to a brand would be more likely to make habitual decisions than use extended problem solving.

Other Questions
What is special about Deaf culture? People choose to live in valleys for a variety of reasons, practical and aesthetic. However, most valleys exhibit relatively steep sides, and many form as the result of active river erosion. These conditions sometimes lead to problems for those people who choose to live on the relatively flat ground of valley floors. Other problems arise when the sloping sides of a valley are cut to create additional flat ground. Study the profile views of four different valleys (Figures 20.1 a-d). Then address the following problems by writing directly on the relevant figure: A. Figure 23.1A shows tilted sedimentary rocks (sandstone, shale, and limestone). Assuming that a roadcut will be made into the slope, which side of the valley poses a greater slope stability threat? Explain. B. Figure 23.1B illustrates two sets of planar fractures within relatively strong granite. Assess the stability of both sides of the valley. Explain your reasoning, C. Figure 23.1C shows a river channel eroded into horizontal sedimentary rock layers. The cross section is located on a sharp bend in the river. The outside of this bend occurs on the east (right) side of the valley. Which rock layer is the weakest? What type of slope failure is imminent? Given that you must build on the sandstone, indicate the most secure place to locate your house. D. Figure 23.1D shows faulted sedimentary rocks overlain in one area by an unconsolidated landslide deposit. Assess the stability of both sides of the valley. Explain your reasoning. Then select the best place to build. What kind of problems might you experience, even here? B -fractures 0 0 o O C D D.O present location of river fault Key to Rock Units on all Four Cross Sections: shale ... conglomerate and standstone 0.0.0 granite limestone unconsolidated talus deposits The question may have one or more than one option correct [tex]\displaystyle\int_0^1 \dfrac{x^4(1-x)^4}{1+x^2}dx[/tex]The correct option is/are A) 22/7 - B) 2/105C) 0D) 71/15 - 3/2 4 pieces of information do you need to set up sales tax for a client who only does business in their home state? Please select all of the possible applications of DNA fingerprinting to test your understanding of several applications of DNA fingerprinting.Check All That Apply-forensics-detection of genetic disease-identifying microorganisms-determining parentage-replacing defective genes 80 POINTS + BRAINLIEST!! Jason bought a jacket on sale for 50% off the original price and another 25% off thediscounted price. If the jacket originally cost 88, what was the final sale price thatJason paid? A 1500 kg car is moving to the right with a speed of 20.0 m/s when it collides with a wall and reboubds at a speed of 5.00 m/s. If the collision lasts for 250 ms, then the magnitude of the average force acring on the car is _____ kN (the answer is 150 but I'm not sure how)pls help!! Bob works in a mid-sized organization with other skilled workers who all pitch in to do what needs to be done to satisfy the customer. It is likely Bob works in a ________ organization.decentralized which of the following policies are consistent with the goal of increasing productivity and growth in developing countries? check all that apply. 1. Protecting property rights and enforcing contracts.2. Pursuing inward-oriented policies.3. Increasing taxes on income from savings.4. Imposing restrictions on foreign ownership of domestic capital.5. Rapid population growth that lowers the stock of capital per worker.6. The emigration of highly skilled workers to rich countries.7. Rapid population growth that increases the burden on the educational system. which of the following is a non-deposit financial institution? a savings and loan association b mutual savings bank c credit union d life insurance company calculate the average weekly contribution margin before taxes (revenues - variable costs) to abc in 2011. ignore labor and facility costs in this calculation. we assume that they are fixed. how does the contribution margin compare with the weekly depreciation? g which of would indicate a contractual relationship between a producer and an insurance company? in gymnosperms, the ____________________ is dominant over the ____________________ generation. A shell is shot with an initial velocity, v0 of 20m/s,at an angle of 0= 60 with the horizontal. At thetop of the trajectory, the shell explodes into two fragments ofequal mass. One fragment, whose speed immediately after theexolosion is zero, falls vertically. How far from the gun does theother fragment land, assuming that the terrain is level and thatair drag is negligible? Find the matrix A of the linear transformationT(M)=[8097]M[8097]1from U22 to U22 (upper triangular matrices) with respect to the standard basis for U22 given by{[1000],[0010],[0001]}. Write the equation of the line that passes through the points (- 9, - 9) and (- 8, 1) Put your answer in fully simplified point-slope form, unless it is a vertical or horizontal line Why avoiding conflict is not healthy for any relationship? A small jet can fly 2040 miles in 4 hours with a tailwind but only 1560 miles into a headwind. Find the speed of the jet in still air and the speed of the wind Select the combinations of strains that would have allowed successful replication of the Lederberg and Tatum experiment. (Check all that apply.) Check All That Apply met biof the leu thi and met biof thr* leu thi* met bio thrleu thi and met bio thrleuthit met bio thr leu thi and met bio thrleut thr met bio thr leu thi and met biof thrt leut thit if the area of the quadrilateral ABCS is 924cm^2 and the length of the diagonal AC is 33cm,find the sum of lengths of the perpendicular from points B and D to AC.please answer with full steps asap