FILL IN THE BLANK a person with_________ displays many of the behaviors of bulimia nervosa but does not engage in compensatory behaviors.

Answers

Answer 1

A person with Binge eating disorder displays many of the behaviors of bulimia nervosa but does not engage in compensatory behaviors.  

Professionals pay close attention to a number of factors when diagnosing an eating disorder, including weight, eating and exercise habits, fixation with food or talking about it excessively, poor mood, high anxiety, perfectionism, and people-pleasing.  Regular episodes of binge eating that are accompanied by a loss of self-control, feelings of guilt, and humiliation are what are known as binge eating. We detect fatigue, poor focus, anger, a continual sense of cold, dizziness, irregular menstruation, hair loss, and weight swings in adolescents who are undernourished. Eating disorders alter a person's perception of their physique.

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Related Questions

A possible explanation of why women in Japan experience a lower rate of hot flashes during menopause is that.A.) soybean is a large part of their diet and it contains plant estrogenB.) cultural forces have dictated that hot flashes are inappropriate and Japanese women unconsciously suppress themC.) ginger root is commonly consumed and it has been proven to suppress hot flashesD.) fish is a large part of their diet and vitamin B12 is known to minimize hot flashesA.) soybean is a large part of their diet and it contains plant estrogen

Answers

A women in japan experience a lower rate of hot flashes during menopause because soybean is a large part of their diet and it contains plant estrogen.

A is the correct option.

What is menopause?

The last period was twelve months ago, indicating that you are in menopause.

Typical symptoms include hot flashes and vaginal dryness. There may also be sleep issues. These symptoms, when combined, might cause anxiety or depression.

Menopause treatments focus on symptom reduction because it is a normal condition. To cure vaginal dryness, topical lubricants or estrogens are utilized. Medication can reduce the severity and frequency of hot flashes. In some cases, oral hormone treatment may be used.

A woman enters menopause 12 months after her last menstruation. Women may begin to notice changes in their monthly cycles, hot flashes, or other symptoms in the years preceding menopause, often known as the perimenopause. Menopause usually begins between the ages of 45 and 55.

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given strong narcotics regularly and in sufficient amounts, dying persons with severe pain will likely experience .

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Given the administration of strong narcotics regularly and in sufficient amounts, dying persons with severe pain are likely to experience significant pain relief.

The use of opioids and other strong narcotics are commonly utilized in palliative care to alleviate pain and improve the quality of life of dying individuals. These medications function by binding to specific receptors in the brain and spinal cord, effectively blocking the transmission of pain signals.

However, it is important to note that the use of strong narcotics may have potential side effects such as sedation, constipation, and respiratory depression. Patients who are prescribed these medications should be carefully monitored to minimize side effects while achieving optimal pain management. Palliative care teams work with patients and their families to develop individualized pain management plans, ensuring that the patient's physical, emotional, and spiritual needs are met. Effective pain management is crucial to improving the quality of life of individuals in palliative care, allowing them to spend their remaining time with dignity and comfort.

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how does asexual reproduction lead to the variety of traits you see in kittens from the same litter

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Genetic equivalence between parents and children is a common characteristic of asexual reproduction.

Asexual reproduction, like parthenogenesis in cats, does not usually result in a range of features among kittens from the same litter. In actuality, asexual reproduction frequently produces children that are genetically identical to their parents. The main way that cats and other animals produce genetic variety in their progeny is through sexual reproduction.  

Somatic recombination, a process that occasionally occurs in asexual reproduction, can cause genetic diversity in the progeny. This takes place when novel genetic combinations are created by randomly mixing and recombining genetic material from various cells in the parent cat's body.

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fill the blank
2.______ provides a way for a microorganism to leave the reservoir. For example, the microorganism may leave the reservoir through the nose or mouth when someone sneezes or coughs.

3. ______ in the mode of transmission, is the method by which the organism moves from one host to another. The mode of transmission is contact, droplet, air-borne, foodborne/water-borne, Vector-borne (usually insect).




4 ____ membranes, or breaks in the skin. Tubes o placed in body cavities, such as urinary catheters, or from punctures produced by invasive procedures such as intravenous fluid replacement can also serve as portal of entry.

5. ____ are organisms that are considered intermediate, that is, somewhere between a virus and a bacterium​

Answers

Answer:

2. Portal of exit provides a way for a microorganism to leave the reservoir. For example, the microorganism may leave the reservoir through the nose or mouth when someone sneezes or coughs.

3. Route of transmission in the mode of transmission is the method by which the organism moves from one host to another. The mode of transmission is contact, droplet, air-borne, foodborne/water-borne, Vector-borne (usually insect).

4. Portal of entry are membranes, or breaks in the skin. Tubes placed in body cavities, such as urinary catheters, or from punctures produced by invasive procedures such as intravenous fluid replacement can also serve as portal of entry.

5. Prions are organisms that are considered intermediate, that is, somewhere between a virus and a bacterium.

Based on what you've learned about the adolescent brain and social development, answer the questions in this case study assignment. Your goals are to help Monica understand why her son makes the choices he does and recommend some strategies that may help solve the problem.

For each question, you should write a paragraph-length response (5–7 sentences) to receive credit for this assignment. You may use your Sophia tutorials as a resource.

Why does it appear that Jordan values the opinion of his peers more than the opinion of his mother? Explain the psychological concepts that may account for why Jordan places value on his peers’ opinions.

Answers

Answer:

It is not uncommon for adolescents to value the opinions of their peers over those of their parents or other authority figures. This can be attributed to the fact that during adolescence, the brain undergoes significant changes that affect social development. The prefrontal cortex, which is responsible for decision-making and impulse control, is not fully developed until the mid-20s. As a result, adolescents are more likely to engage in risky behavior and seek out new experiences. Additionally, the limbic system, which controls emotions, is more active during adolescence, which can lead to heightened sensitivity to social cues and peer influence. This may explain why Jordan places more value on the opinions of his peers rather than his mother.

Explanation:

Jordan's tendency to value the opinion of his peers over his mother's is likely due to the normal process of adolescent brain development and social development.

What happens to brain during adolescence?

During adolescence, the brain undergoes significant changes, including the development of the prefrontal cortex, which is responsible for decision-making, impulse control, and planning. This region of the brain is still maturing during adolescence and may not fully develop until the mid-20s.

As a result, adolescents may be more prone to making impulsive decisions and seeking immediate rewards, such as social acceptance and peer approval.

Additionally, adolescence is a time when social relationships and peer interactions become increasingly important, and adolescents may prioritize their peers' opinions as a way of fitting in and establishing their social identity. To help address this issue, Monica can try to understand her son's need for social approval and try to engage him in positive social activities that align with her family's values.

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Symptoms of digital eye strain include

A. blinking a lot, eyes crossed, and
seeing double.

B. eye pain, dry eyes, and blurred vision.

C. sneezing, coughing, and twitching.

D. crying, red eyes, and swollen eyelids.

Answers

Eye issues brought on by extended computer use are known as computer vision syndrome and include:

Eye irritation (Dry eyes, itchy eyes, red eyes)Visional haze.Headaches.Backaches.A stiff neck.Fatigued muscles.

How long does digital eye strain take to heal?Eye strain can result from factors other than underlying diseases. Examples include excessive screen time, prolonged driving, incorrectly prescribed spectacles, extreme weariness, or a lack of sleep. You could discover that taking a break from the computer or putting on precise prescription lenses provides relief within a few minutes or hours for minor discomfort. If you are having eye strain due to a lack of sleep, it could take a few days to recover. Digital eye strain or computer vision syndrome is temporary. A good break from your smartphone should help your symptoms disappear. The intensity of your symptoms may vary depending on how much time you spend staring at a screen, how your computer is set up, and how often you use a screen.

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For someone who just started an exercise program, muscle soreness and stiffness and the risk for injuries can be lessened or eliminated by _____

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By gradually increasing the intensity, duration, and frequency of exercise, one can reduce or completely avoid muscular soreness and stiffness in those who have recently begun an exercise program.

Exercises that are done correctly can enhance fitness and health without causing joint damage. Exercise can improve quality of life when used in conjunction with a treatment plan. It can also help preserve bone strength, increase energy, improve sleep quality, and strengthen the muscles surrounding joints. Each action, no matter how tiny, may be beneficial. Regular tasks like raking leaves, walking the dog, and mowing the grass count. Exercise is a physical activity, and physical exertion is what makes something a physical activity.

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which of the following laboratory values is most consistent with a diagnosis of fluid depletion (dehydration)?

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The laboratory value that is most consistent with a diagnosis of fluid depletion or dehydration is, increased hematocrit. Option A is correct choice.

Hematocrit is the proportion of red blood cells to the fluid component (plasma) in the blood. When an individual is dehydrated, the body attempts to maintain blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs by reducing blood volume. This results in a concentration of red blood cells in the smaller amount of plasma, leading to an increase in hematocrit levels.

Option B, decreased BUN (blood urea nitrogen), is not consistent with dehydration as BUN levels typically increase in dehydration due to decreased kidney perfusion and subsequent decreased urine output. Option C, decreased serum osmolality, is also not consistent with dehydration as serum osmolality increases in dehydration due to increased solute concentration in the smaller amount of fluid. Option D, decreased urine specific gravity, is also not consistent with dehydration as urine specific gravity typically increases in dehydration due to increased solute concentration in the smaller amount of urine.

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--The complete question is, Which of the following laboratory values is most consistent with a diagnosis of fluid depletion (dehydration)?

A. increased hematocrit

B. decreased BUN

C. decreased serum osmolality

D. decreased urine specific gravity--

Which of the following is a federal agency that is the world's largest source of biomedical research funding?
A) National Institutes of Health (NIH)
B) Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC )
D) Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
E) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
F) Indian Health Service (IHS)
G) Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA)

Answers

A) National Institutes of Health (NIH) is the federal agency that is the world's largest source of biomedical research funding. The NIH is a part of the United States Department of Health and Human Services and is made up of 27 institutes and centers.

These institutes and centers conduct research and provide funding for research in a variety of areas related to health and medicine, including cancer, infectious diseases, heart disease, and mental health.

The NIH provides funding for research at universities, hospitals, and research institutions across the United States, as well as funding for research conducted by its own scientists. This funding has led to numerous breakthroughs in medical research, including the development of new treatments for diseases and the discovery of the genetic basis for many health conditions.

Overall, the NIH plays a crucial role in advancing biomedical research and improving public health in the United States and around the world.

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which of the following strategies for enhancing the intake of healthful foods is appropriate for an adolescent

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The appropriate strategy for enhancing the intake of healthful foods for an adolescent is Making healthful food choices more convenient and available for the adolescent. Option c is correct choice.

Encouraging the adolescent to consume snack foods with the grains food group may not necessarily promote the intake of healthful foods, as many snack foods within this group may be high in added sugars and fats. Permitting the adolescent to skip breakfast may lead to increased hunger and overeating later in the day, leading to the consumption of less healthful foods.

Allowing the adolescent complete autonomy in making food choices may lead to the consumption of more convenience foods and less healthful options. Therefore, making healthful food choices more convenient and available for the adolescent is the most appropriate strategy. Hence option C is correct.

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--The complete question is, Which of the following strategies for enhancing the intake of healthful foods is appropriate for an adolescent?

A) Encouraging the adolescent to consume snack foods with the grains food group

B) Permitting the adolescent to skip breakfast to enhance appetite at later meals

C) Making healthful food choices more convenient and available for the adolescent

D) Allowing the adolescent complete autonomy in making food choices--

Peter does not exercise regularly. When he does exercise, he does not use a warm-up or cool down period. Predict what may happen to Peters muscles as a result of these habits.

Answers

Peter's muscles may experience several negative effects as a result of his lack of regular exercise and his failure to warm up and cool down properly.

Without regular exercise, Peter's muscles may become weak and lose their tone, leading to reduced flexibility and mobility. Additionally, he may experience muscle atrophy (loss of muscle tissue) due to disuse, which can further decrease his muscle strength and size. This can lead to difficulty performing daily tasks and a decreased quality of life.

Skipping warm-up and cool-down periods can also have negative effects on Peter's muscles. Without a warm-up, Peter's muscles will not be properly prepared for the demands of exercise, increasing his risk of injury. Without a cool-down, Peter's muscles will not have the opportunity to properly recover after exercise, leading to soreness, stiffness, and an increased risk of injury in subsequent workouts.

Overall, Peter's lack of regular exercise and failure to properly warm up and cool down may lead to weakened and atrophied muscles, reduced mobility and flexibility, and an increased risk of injury. It is important for Peter to establish a regular exercise routine and to properly warm up and cool down to maintain his muscle health and overall physical wellbeing.

Answer:

Peter's muscles may become tight and prone to injury due to his lack of regular exercise and absence of a warm-up or cool down period. Without regular exercise, his muscles may become weak and atrophy over time. Additionally, not using a warm-up or cool down period can lead to muscle strains or other injuries, as the muscles are not properly prepared or stretched before exercise and are not given time to recover and relax after exercise. Over time, this can result in chronic pain and decreased mobility.

How is Caleb's dietary fiber intake?

Answers

Answer:

The question is confusing.

Explanation:

When a person authorizes another to make medical decisions on his or her behalf, the person has written which of the following?Proxy directive Treatment directive Living will Standard addendum to a will

Answers

When a person authorizes another to make medical decisions on his or her behalf, the person has written a Proxy Directive.

A proxy directive, also known as a healthcare proxy or durable power of attorney for healthcare, is a legal document that allows a person to appoint another individual to make medical decisions on their behalf in the event that they are unable to make decisions for themselves due to illness, injury, or incapacity.

The appointed individual, also known as the healthcare agent or proxy, is responsible for ensuring that the patient's wishes and values are respected and followed when making medical decisions. The proxy directive can include specific instructions on the types of medical treatments that the patient does or does not want to receive.

A proxy directive is an important document that ensures that the patient's medical wishes are respected and that decisions are made in their best interests even if they are unable to make decisions for themselves.

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Highlight the importance of TV and other mass media in influencing people's perception of health.​

Answers

TV and other mass media are important in shaping people's perception of health by providing health information, promoting public health campaigns, portraying role models, and advertising health-related products and services.

Health information: TV and other mass media are a major source of health information for the public. People rely on these media to learn about health issues, including new diseases, treatments, and prevention methods.Health campaigns: TV and other mass media can be used to promote public health campaigns. Health campaigns can raise awareness of important health issues, such as vaccination, cancer screening, and healthy lifestyle choices. TRole models: TV and other mass media often portray characters who serve as role models for viewers. These role models can influence viewers' attitudes and behaviors related to health.Advertising: TV and other mass media are also a major source of advertising for health-related products and services. The messages conveyed in these advertisements can influence people's perceptions of health and encourage them to purchase or use certain products.

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Why do people talk bad about others?

Answers

Answer: as a way to undermine rivals and establish alliances

Explanation:

People gossip to feel like they belong to a group. They use speaking badly of people as a way to undermine rivals and establish alliances. When two people speak ill of a third, they form a kind of alliance. To gossip is to try to be inside of possible attacks of opponents.

People gossip to feel like they belong to a group. They used speaking badly of people as a way to under mine reveals and establish alliances . When two person speak I’ll of a third, they form a kind of alliance .to gossip is to try to be inside of possible attracks of opponents.

Which of the following would be an accepted textbook method for creating a pleasant facial appearance post-embalming?
1. Reposture the lips by holding the thumb and index finger on the lateral ends of the lower lip and pressing inward and upward against the lateral side of the upper lip.
2. Project the "smile eminence" by injecting hypodermic tissue building compound into the area of the nasolabial folds, just lateral to each nasal sulcus.
3. Lip cosmetics may be applied to create the illusion of raised corners which are characteristic of a smile. The lower mucous membrane is cosmetically widened by extending the color to each end of the line of closure; the width of the upper mucous membrane is slightly shortened.
4. Inject hypodermic tissue building compound into each masseter muscle to widen the lateral cheeks, (as they appear when a person smiles.)

Answers

Lip cosmetics may be applied to create the illusion of raised corners which are characteristic of a smile. The lower mucous membrane is cosmetically widened by extending the color to each end of the line of closure; the width of the upper mucous membrane is slightly shortened, is the accepted method for creating a pleasant facial appearance post-embalming. Option 3 is correct answer.

Lip cosmetics may be applied to create the illusion of raised corners which are characteristic of a smile. The lower mucous membrane is cosmetically widened by extending the color to each end of the line of closure, and the width of the upper mucous membrane is slightly shortened. This technique can help to give the appearance of a slight smile or a more pleasant expression on the face of the deceased.

Options 1, 2, and 4 do not relate to creating a pleasant facial appearance, but rather to manipulating facial features in a way that is not necessarily conducive to achieving a natural, peaceful appearance. Option 1, for example, involves repositioning the lips in a way that could look forced or unnatural, while option 4 involves injecting a tissue building compound into the masseter muscles, which may not create a natural appearance. Option 2 also involves injecting a tissue building compound, which may not be necessary for achieving a natural and pleasant appearance.

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identify two priority nursing actions to implement in the post operative period after a cleft palate repair of a client

Answers

Nursing interventions that are required in postoperative care include prompt pain control, assessment of the surgical site and drainage tubes,

Just what is meant by pain?

Pain is a bothersome indicator that something is painful. Even among people with identical injuries and/or illnesses, it is a difficult process that varies widely from person to person. Very minor, barely perceptible pain can also be explosive.

By what standards is pain measured?

The Select committee on Taxonomy made the recommendation that the IASP Council adopt the current definition of hurt as An unbearable emotional and sensory embedment with actual or prospective cell damage, and described in the context of that harm. This definition was approved by the IASP Commission in 1979.

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TRUE OR FALSE a key difference between type-1 diabetes and type-2 diabetes is that with type-2, insulin replacement is not used.

Answers

FALSE. A key difference between type-1 diabetes and type-2 diabetes is that in type-1 diabetes, the body does not produce insulin, while in type-2 diabetes, the body either does not produce enough insulin.

What are type-1 diabetes and type-2 diabetes?

Type-1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition in which the body's immune system attacks and destroys the cells in the pancreas that produce insulin.

As a result, people with type-1 diabetes do not produce insulin and need to replace it through injections or an insulin pump. This is because insulin is necessary for the body to use glucose (sugar) from food for energy, and without insulin, glucose builds up in the blood, leading to high blood sugar levels that can cause a range of health problems over time.

On the other hand, type-2 diabetes is a metabolic disorder in which the body either does not produce enough insulin or cannot use insulin effectively. This is known as insulin resistance.

Thus, Insulin replacement therapy can be used for both type-1 and type-2 diabetes. In fact, many people with type-2 diabetes use insulin as part of their treatment plan, especially if other medications and lifestyle changes are not enough to control their blood sugar levels.

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please helpppppppp!!!!

Answers

Each of the chemical reactions given describes different scenarios that occur regularly inside the human body - decomposition, anabolism, catabolism and combination reaction.

What are chemical reactions?

Chemical reactions are processes that occur when two or more substances interact to form new substances. Chemical reactions are governed by the laws of thermodynamics, which describe the flow of energy in the system.

From the given question, correct answers are:

Stomach acids break down sugar to give glucose - catabolism reactionAmino acids join to form protein molecules - combination reactionLarge molecules break down to smaller molecules and release energy - decomposition reactionComplex molecules build to create energy - anabolism reaction

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Tyler is a massage therapist who notices a strange yellowish cast to his client Amy's skin. Amy has been his client for a long time, and he's never
seen her skin look like this before. He asks Amy about it, and she says it's kind of weird, but she's not that worried about it because she thinks
she's just a little under the weather. What would be the BEST way for Tyler to respond to his client?

Answers

You are aware of the value of effective communication, but working with individuals who are suffering makes these abilities even more crucial.

Effective communicationYou need to be aware of the pressure that works and when the client wants you to exert more pressure or less. A clear line of communication will also aid in determining which approaches and delivery methods are most beneficial and which may not be.Also, you should talk about things like music, lighting, and scents before each session because fibromyalgia patients could be sensitive to environmental stimulus. Clients can become more relaxed and open to receiving a massage rapidly with the use of a quiet voice, a calm demeanor, and a clear style. —Feedback from the current session.

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3 reason why discrimination against gender is illegal in south africa

Answers

Explanation:

   The Constitution: The South African Constitution explicitly prohibits discrimination on the basis of gender. The Constitution sets out the rights of all citizens, including the right to equality, human dignity, and freedom from discrimination. The Bill of Rights, which is included in the Constitution, specifically states that everyone is equal before the law and has the right to equal protection and benefit of the law.

   Legislation: There are several pieces of legislation in South Africa that prohibit discrimination on the basis of gender. These include the Employment Equity Act, the Promotion of Equality and Prevention of Unfair Discrimination Act, and the Constitution. These laws require employers to create equal opportunities for men and women, and prohibit any form of discrimination based on gender.

   International Obligations: South Africa is also a signatory to several international agreements and conventions that require it to take action to prevent discrimination on the basis of gender. These include the United Nations Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW), which South Africa ratified in 1995. As a signatory, South Africa is required to take steps to eliminate discrimination against women and promote gender equality.

Overall, discrimination against gender is illegal in South Africa because it goes against the principles of equality, human dignity, and freedom from discrimination that are enshrined in the Constitution. Additionally, legislation and international agreements require the government to take action to prevent gender-based discrimination and promote gender equality.

Explanation:

Gender norms and family responsibilities play a role, and women also have less access to resources and information than men to inform these decisions.

Participating in regular exercise (4 points)


A. hinders the body's ability to handle stress

B. impairs blood circulation throughout the body

C. increases sleeplessness and feelings of anxiety

D. reduces the risk of heart attack

Answers

D. Reduces the risk of heart attack

Exercising strengthens the heart preventing fatty deposits and plaque from forming in the heart’s arteries (which is a way heart attacks occur)

FILL IN THE BLANK One of the most important things you can do while driving is to concentrate on the__________of your passengers.

Answers

One of the most important things you can do while driving is to concentrate on the road and traffic, rather than the needs or demands of your passengers.

As a driver, it is essential to prioritize the safety of yourself, your passengers, and other road users. While driving, it is crucial to stay focused on the road, obey traffic rules, and be alert for any unexpected situations. Focusing on the needs or demands of your passengers can cause distractions and take your attention away from the road, increasing the risk of accidents.

It is important to communicate with your passengers before starting the trip to set expectations and ensure everyone's safety. Remember, your priority as a driver is to ensure the safety of all passengers and get them to their destination safely.

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feeling depressed mumbling to oneself pacing back and forth discussing issues with staff maintaining strong eye contact

Answers

Psychomotor agitation is a symptom connected to a wide spectrum of mood disorders. Individuals with this illness engage in motions that serve no purpose. Examples include walking around the room, tapping your toes, or quick speech.

Mania or anxiety are frequent causes of psychomotor agitation. It’s found most commonly in patients with bipolar disorder. Posttraumatic stress disorder and depression are two other illnesses that might contribute to psychomotor agitation. Emotional anxiety, restlessness, tapping, suddenly beginning and finishing tasks, fidgeting, pacing, handwringing, quick talking, racing thoughts, packed thinking, and moving items for no apparent reason are some of the most typical symptoms of psychomotor agitation. Individuals who have psychomotor agitation will demonstrate a series of behaviors, including, pacing back and forth in a room, taking off clothes etc.

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Complete question:

feeling depressed mumbling to oneself pacing back and forth discussing issues with staff maintaining strong eye contact are symptoms of Psychomotor agitation. Explain?

T/F. Positive experiences or emotions may trigger the use of food as a source of comfort, contributing to additional weight gain.

Answers

The statement "Positive experiences or emotions may trigger the use of food as a source of comfort, contributing to additional weight gain" is true because this type of eating is often referred to as emotional eating and is a common coping mechanism for stress.

Weight gain refers to an increase in body weight, usually resulting from an excess consumption of calories or a decrease in physical activity. Weight gain can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic predisposition, hormonal imbalances, medication use, medical conditions, and lifestyle factors such as diet and physical activity levels.

Unintentional weight gain can be a sign of an underlying medical condition, such as hypothyroidism, polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), or Cushing's syndrome, and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional. On the other hand, intentional weight gain can be achieved through a combination of a healthy, high-calorie diet and strength training exercises to build muscle mass.

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A researcher is interested in how the scores that children receive on a spelling test are affected by the amount of food that they eat for lunch. The independent variable is

Answers

A researcher who is interested in studying how the scores that children receive on a spelling test are affected by the amount of food that they eat for lunch would need to identify a few variables before conducting the research .

Variables to identify before conducting research: The independent variable in this study is the amount of food that the children eat for lunch. The independent variable is the variable that is being manipulated by the researcher. In this case, the researcher wants to see how the amount of food affects the scores that the children receive on a spelling test. The dependent variable in this study is the scores that the children receive on the spelling test. The dependent variable is the variable that is being measured by the researcher. In this case, the researcher wants to see how the independent variable (the amount of food) affects the dependent variable (the scores on the spelling test).The extraneous variables in this study would be any other factors that could potentially affect the scores that the children receive on the spelling test. For example, if the researcher were to conduct this study during the school year, the amount of sleep that the children get each night could be an extraneous variable that could affect their scores on the test. To control for extraneous variables, the researcher would need to ensure that all of the children participating in the study are getting the same amount of sleep each night, as well as control for any other factors that could affect the scores on the test.

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TRUE/FALSE.Amniocentesis is a test in which fluid is removed from the uterus so the baby's genetic composition can be determined. Please select the best answer from the choices provided.

Answers

Amniocentesis is a test that removes fluid from the uterus to determine the baby's inheritable makeup. It's true.

Amniocentesis is a medical procedure used primarily in the antenatal opinion of inheritable conditions. It has other uses, similar as Assessment of fetal lung infection and maturity.

The provider uses a needle to remove a small quantum of amniotic fluid from the uterus, also the lab analyzes the sample for certain conditions. During an amniocentesis, an ultrasound transducer( transducer) shows the baby's position in the uterus on a examiner.

Amniocentesis is a antenatal procedure that your croaker may recommend during gestation. The test checks for fetal abnormalities( birth blights) similar as Down pattern, cystic fibrosis, or spina bifida.

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which of the following groups of people may need to take vitamin and/or mineral supplements? (check all that apply.)

Answers

Women who are pregnant or nursing, individuals who drink more alcohol than is considered safe, those who use drugs, and the elderly may all need vitamin supplements.

Which age group has the most vitamin need?

Because people in this age range tended to consume vitamins even if they typically ate enough, which might result in intoxication or negative somatic consequences, adults 20 to 44 years of age need extra and more targeted treatments linked to nutrient consumption.

What vitamins and minerals do all humans require to stay healthy?

Among the 13 essential vitamins are vitamins B, A, C, D, E, and K.[tex](thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, biotin, B6, B12, and folate).[/tex] Vitamins serve a variety of purposes that keep the body working properly.

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Which of the following is the most comment obstacle to effectively identifying problems?

The tendency to lack effective efficacy and to become anxious

The tendency to rush to trying a solution before the problem is defined

The tendency to get distracted and think too divergently

The tendency to give up prior to identifying a problem

Answers

Answer:

The tendency to lack effective efficacy and to become anxious

Explanation:

most people jump head on into something without practice or research so they often become anxious or get worried over the first obstical causing there performance to drop as they don't think as logically as they normally would without the stress and anxiety caused by there lack of knowledge

FILL IN THE BLANK. Women who are up to _____ months pregnant can choose between taking pills or having a procedure to end a pregnancy.

Answers

Women who are up to 10 weeks pregnant can choose between a medication abortion or a surgical abortion to end a pregnancy.

A medication abortion involves taking two pills, mifepristone and misoprostol, which cause the pregnancy to end and is effective in up to 98% of cases. A surgical abortion involves removing the pregnancy from the uterus and can be done using different methods depending on the stage of pregnancy. The choice between these two options depends on various factors, such as personal preference, medical eligibility, and access to services. It is important for women to have access to accurate information and supportive medical care, regardless of their decision. Counseling and support services are available to help women make an informed choice and cope with the emotional and physical effects of abortion.

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