A concise diagram of a fruit​

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Answer 1

A concise diagram of a fruit showing its various parts such as the epicarp, mesocarp, endocarp, endosperm, and embryo is found in the attachment.

What are the parts of a fruit?

A fruit typically consists of three main parts: the exocarp (outermost layer, also known as the skin), the mesocarp (middle layer, often fleshy and edible), and the endocarp (innermost layer surrounding the seeds).

The endocarp may be hard and stony, as in the case of a peach pit, or papery, as in the case of a tomato seed. In some fruits, the mesocarp and endocarp may be fused together, as in the case of an apple, where the endocarp forms the core and the mesocarp forms the edible flesh surrounding it.

Some fruits may also contain additional structures such as the receptacle, which is the base of the fruit where it was attached to the plant, and the calyx, which are the sepals that remain attached to the fruit after it has ripened.

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A Concise Diagram Of A Fruit

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Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff and hard. Stalks left in a salt solution become limp and soft. From this we can deduce that the cells of the celery stalks area) hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solutionb) hypertonic to both fresh water and the salt solutionc) hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solutiond) isotonic with fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution

Answers

The cells of the celery stalks are hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution that is option C.

Water molecules passively diffuse through a semi-permeable membrane by osmosis. The gradient in solute concentration on each side of the membrane determines the direction of water flow.

Any external solution with a high solute content and a low water concentration in comparison to bodily fluids is referred to as a hypertonic solution. The net migration of water in a hypertonic solution will be from the body into the solution.

The solute concretion is always smaller than the cell in a hypotonic solution. Due to the high concentration of solute inside the cells, there is less solvent (water).

In the osmosis process, water moves from a high concentration to a low concentration across a semipermeable membrane.

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a cell examined under a microscope was found to have membrane-bound organelles. how should the cell be classified?

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A eukaryotic cell is a cell that has a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound compartments or sacs, called organelles, which have specialized functions.

Which biome typically experiences hot summers, cold winters, and lots of rain? temperate grassland
tropical rainforest
coniferous forest
temperate deciduous forest​

Answers

I think coniferous forest or temperate deciduous forest. :)
Answer:
The biome that typically experiences hot summers, cold winters, and lots of rain is the temperate deciduous forest.

Explanation:

The temperate deciduous forest biome is characterized by moderate to high precipitation, with rainfall occurring throughout the year. The summers are generally warm, while the winters are cold with occasional snowfall. The temperate deciduous forest biome is found in regions with a moderate climate, typically in the middle latitudes, and is home to a wide variety of plant and animal species adapted to this particular climate.

Fever inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions. O enhances bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions. speeds up the body's reactions AND triggers complement activation. O inhibits bacterial growth AND triggers complement activation.

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The correct statement is A. Fever inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions

Fever is defined as a body temperature that is higher than normal, and it is one of the most common symptoms of sickness, it is a typical immune response in humans to infections, certain medications, or other medical conditions such as autoimmune diseases. Fever is a mechanism used by the body to protect itself by inhibiting bacterial growth and speeding up the body's reactions. Bacterial growth is inhibited by the immune system's response to an infection when a fever is present. The heat created by the fever causes the bacteria to become less stable and unable to survive, resulting in a reduction in their population size.

Fever may also interfere with bacterial reproduction by causing damage to the bacterial cell membranes, inhibiting their growth. The other given options are incorrect because: Option B, oxygen (O2) enhances bacterial growth and speeds up the body's reactions. Oxygen is needed for respiration and the growth of bacteria. Oxygen does not inhibit bacterial growth but enhances bacterial growth. Option C, speeds up the body's reactions and triggers complement activation: This statement is incorrect because fever does not activate the complement system. Option D, inhibits bacterial growth and triggers complement activation: Although the statement inhibits bacterial growth is correct, the second part of the statement is incorrect because fever does not activate the complement system.

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how will transcription of the lac operon be affected by a mutation in the laci gene that results in an inability to synthesize any repressor protein or produces a repressor protein that is unable to bind to the operator?

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If there is a mutation in the laci gene that results in an inability to synthesize any repressor protein or produces a repressor protein that is unable to bind to the operator, transcription of the lac operon will not be repressed.

The lac operon is a set of genes in the bacterium Escherichia coli that is responsible for lactose metabolism. The operator, promoter, and structural genes are the three components of this operon. The operator and promoter, as well as the regulatory gene, are situated upstream of the structural genes.

The lac repressor is a protein that binds to the operator and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the structural genes, which encode proteins that break down lactose into glucose and galactose.

The repressor protein is unable to bind to the operator if a mutation occurs in the laci gene that results in an inability to synthesize any repressor protein or produces a repressor protein that is unable to bind to the operator. This causes the repressor protein to be unable to bind to the operator, and as a result, the structural genes involved in lactose metabolism are continuously transcribed, even in the presence of glucose. As a result, lactose utilization will rise to a higher level than normal.

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which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta? which of the following hormones is not produced by the placenta? a. estrogensb. hcg c.cestosterone d. progesterone.

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The hormone that is not produced by the placenta is c. testosterone.

Hormones are the body's chemical messengers that help regulate and coordinate the body's activities.

The placenta is an important organ during pregnancy that produces and secretes a variety of hormones necessary for a healthy pregnancy.

Estrogens, hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin), and progesterone are hormones produced by the placenta to maintain a healthy pregnancy, while testosterone is not produced by the placenta.

Estrogens: Estrogens are a group of hormones that play an essential role in pregnancy. They help to regulate the growth and development of the fetus, promote the development of the breasts and uterus, and help to maintain the pregnancy by stimulating the growth of the uterine lining.

hCG: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone that is produced by the placenta during pregnancy. It helps to maintain the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone and stimulates the growth of the placenta. It is also the hormone that is detected by pregnancy tests to confirm pregnancy.

Testosterone: Testosterone is a male sex hormone that is not produced by the placenta. It is primarily produced by the testes in males and the ovaries in females. Testosterone is essential for the development of male sexual characteristics, such as muscle mass, body hair, and deepening of the voice.

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cancer cells are developed through a malfunction within the cell cycle. which point of the cell cycle would have the highest risk of cancer if it malfunctioned or did not work properly?

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The cell cycle consists of interphase (G1, S, G2) and mitotic phase (M phase).

Malfunctions at different points in the cell cycle can potentially lead to cancer, but the point with the highest risk is during the G1 phase of interphase. This is the stage where the cell is growing, performing its normal functions, and preparing for DNA replication. During G1, the cell undergoes a checkpoint to ensure that the DNA is intact and that there are enough nutrients and growth factors for the cell to divide. If this checkpoint is bypassed due to a malfunction, the cell can continue to divide uncontrollably, leading to the formation of tumors and potentially cancer.

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All of the following statements concerning cellular respiration are true EXCEPT:
a. In the citric acid cycle, two molecules of CO2 and one molecule of FADH2 are produced for each acetyl-CoA that
enters the cycle.
b. ATP is converted to ADP during two of the reactions of glycolysis.
c. When aerobes respire anaerobically, they may build up an oxygen debt that may be paid eventually by intake of oxygen.
d. The metabolic breakdown of glucose yields more energy during fermentation than during aerobic respiration

Answers

The metabolic breakdown of glucose yields more energy during fermentation than during aerobic respiration is FALSE.

Cellular respiration is a process of energy conversion in which food molecules are broken down to release energy, and this process occurs in both autotrophs and heterotrophs.

In autotrophs, the food molecules synthesized during photosynthesis are broken down to release energy; while in heterotrophs, the food molecules consumed from the environment are broken down to release energy. During cellular respiration, a series of oxidation-reduction reactions take place, which release energy from food molecules in the form of ATP.

There are three main steps in cellular respiration: Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the Electron transport chain. All of the given statements concerning cellular respiration are true except for option d. The metabolic breakdown of glucose yields more energy during fermentation than during aerobic respiration, which is false.

Fermentation only yields 2 ATP molecules per molecule of glucose, while aerobic respiration yields 36-38 ATP molecules per molecule of glucose, so fermentation yields less energy than aerobic respiration.

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Which of the following word roots are associated with the term adrenocortical carcinoma? Cortex Adrenal endocrine

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The word roots associated with the term adrenocortical carcinoma are cortex and adrenal endocrine.

What is adrenocortical carcinoma?

Adrenocortical carcinoma is an aggressive cancer that originates in the cortex, the outer layer of the adrenal gland. It affects about one in every million individuals each year, with an incidence rate of 0.2 to 2 cases per million people per year. The adrenal glands are small organs located on top of each kidney that produce hormones essential to life, including cortisol and aldosterone.

The word roots associated with the term adrenocortical carcinoma are cortex and adrenal endocrine. The adrenal gland is an endocrine gland that produces a variety of hormones, including adrenaline and the steroids aldosterone and cortisol. The term cortex refers to the outer part of an organ, such as the adrenal gland's outer layer.

The adrenal glands are involved in the body's reaction to stress and the maintenance of salt and water balance. Cortisol, for example, helps the body respond to stress by increasing blood sugar levels and suppressing the immune system. Aldosterone, on the other hand, regulates salt and water balance in the body.

When the adrenal gland produces too much cortisol or aldosterone, it can cause a variety of symptoms, including high blood pressure, weight gain, and muscle weakness. Adrenocortical carcinoma symptoms can include weight loss, abdominal pain, and high blood pressure.

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where in the cell does the electron transport chain that is part of the fourth stage of aerobic respiration take place?

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The electron transport chain that is part of the fourth stage of aerobic respiration occurs in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells. It takes place in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, where the electron transport chain is located.

The electron transport chain consists of a series of protein complexes and molecules that move electrons from one complex to another. The electrons come from NADH and FADH2, which are produced in the previous stages of aerobic respiration. As the electrons move through the electron transport chain, they release energy that is used to pump protons across the inner membrane of the mitochondria. This creates a proton gradient that is used to generate ATP through chemiosmosis. Ultimately, the electrons combine with oxygen to form water, which is the final product of aerobic respiration. The electron transport chain is a critical step in aerobic respiration because it is responsible for generating the majority of the ATP that is produced during this process.

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State the retention properties of loam, clay and sandy soil samples
.

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Loam soil is a mixture of sand, silt, and clay, and is generally considered to be the ideal type of soil for plant growth. It has good water retention properties and can hold nutrients well, making it fertile.

What is  fertile ?

Fertile refers to soil or land that is capable of producing abundant crops or vegetation. Fertility is a measure of the soil's ability to support plant growth and sustain life. A fertile soil contains essential nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, as well as other minerals and organic matter that support plant growth.

Fertility can be influenced by several factors, including soil texture, pH, nutrient content, and the presence of microorganisms. Fertile soil is important for agriculture and gardening, as it provides a good foundation for plant growth and can result in higher yields of crops or healthier plants.

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30 POINTS
Create a timeline illustrating developments in the understanding of botany, plant reproduction, and hybridization. Your timeline must include at least 8 different points.

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Answer:

Timeline of Developments in the Understanding of Botany, Plant Reproduction, and Hybridization:

1. 600 BCE - Theophrastus writes "Enquiry into Plants," one of the earliest works on botany and plant classification.

2. 1682 - Nehemiah Grew publishes "Anatomy of Plants," which lays the foundation for the study of plant anatomy.

3. 1727 - Johann Friedrich Böttger discovers the principles of plant hybridization, by successfully crossing two different species of tobacco plants.

4. 1760 - Joseph Koelreuter demonstrates that hybridization can occur between plants of different genera.

5. 1827 - Robert Brown discovers the cell nucleus, which leads to further understanding of plant reproduction.

6. 1856 - Gregor Mendel publishes his work on inheritance and genetics in pea plants, laying the foundation for the study of plant breeding.

7. 1898 - Carl Correns, Hugo de Vries, and Erich von Tschermak independently rediscover Mendel's work, leading to the modern study of genetics.

8. 1900s - Scientists continue to develop hybridization techniques, leading to the creation of many hybrid plant varieties, including hybrid corn, wheat, and rice.

9. 1953 - James Watson and Francis Crick discover the structure of DNA, leading to a deeper understanding of the genetic mechanisms underlying plant reproduction and hybridization.

10. 2000s - Modern techniques such as gene editing and genetic modification continue to advance the study of botany and plant breeding, with potential applications in agriculture, medicine, and conservation.

some animals are more sensitive to changes in their environment than others. the presence and abundance of certain species can be used to gauge stream quality. these species are referred to as .

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The species that are used to gauge stream quality are referred to as Bioindicators.

Bioindicators are living organisms that are used to gauge stream quality. They are utilized to track changes in the environment by responding to changes in environmental variables, including water temperature, water chemistry, and habitat availability. Bioindicators can be used to evaluate the effects of management techniques on ecological health, and they can also be used to establish baseline data for ecological health. The presence and abundance of certain species can be used to gauge stream quality.

Bioindicators are species that are delicate and responsive to the effects of environmental degradation. These organisms can be a variety of species, including macroinvertebrates, bacteria, algae, and other microorganisms. They provide an insight into the health of the environment by indicating any variations in the biological communities that rely on them for survival.

Bioindicators are an essential tool for detecting water pollution and environmental degradation. Bioindicators are used by ecologists to observe the biological diversity and stability of an ecosystem. They serve as an early warning system that signals the presence of environmental disturbances, and they can assist in determining the effectiveness of various environmental management techniques.

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The test-cross:a) makes it possible to determine the genotype of an individual of unknown genotype that exhibits the dominant version of a traitb) is a cross between an individual whose genotype for a trait is not known and an individual homozygous recessive for the traitc) sometimes requires the production of multiple offspring to reveal the genotype of an individual whose genotype is unknown (but who exhibits the dominant pheonotype)d) Only a) and b) are correcte) Choices a), b) and c) are correct

Answers

Options a), b), and c) are all correct explanations of the test-cross technique. Therefore, option (E) is correct.

The test-cross is a breeding technique used to determine the genotype of an individual with an unknown genotype but exhibits the dominant phenotype.

It involves crossing the individual of interest, whose genotype is unknown, with an individual that is homozygous recessive for the trait in question. By observing the phenotypes of the offspring, it is possible to deduce the genotype of the individual being tested.

Option a) is correct because the test-cross allows for determining the genotype of an individual with an unknown genotype but exhibits the dominant version of a trait.

Option b) is correct because the cross is performed with an individual that is homozygous recessive for the trait.

Option c) is correct because sometimes multiple offspring need to be produced and analyzed to reveal the genotype of the individual being tested.

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Which of the following terms refers to a passage or channel and is derived from the Latin meaning passage? -Concha - Naris - Turbinate - Sinus - Meatus.

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The term that refers to a passage or channel and is derived from the Latin meaning passage is the word: meatus

A meatus is a natural passageway in the body that provides communication between two larger structures. The other four terms – concha, naris, turbinate, and sinus – all refer to a part of the anatomy of the nose.

The concha is the curved outer wall of the nose. The naris is the opening of the nostrils. The turbinate is three curved bones in the nasal cavity. The sinus is a cavity in the bones of the skull that is lined with mucous membranes.

All of these terms are associated with the nasal cavity, but the only one that can be defined as a passage or channel is the meatus.

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in a rainforest there are a wide variety of plants. short plants have broad, flat leaves. tall plants have small, narrow leaves. what is an advantage of short plants having broad, flat leaves?

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The small plants having flat leaves can collect water and sunlight better even though they are at the bottom of the forest underneath the tall trees.

In a rainforest, an advantage of short plants having broad, flat leaves is that it allows them to capture more sunlight for photosynthesis, as broad, flat leaves have a larger surface area than narrow leaves, which means they can absorb more sunlight for energy.

What are leaf size and photosynthesis?

In a dense rainforest environment where light is limited, this can give short plants an advantage in the competition for resources. Additionally, broad, flat leaves are better adapted to capture rain and dew, which can provide additional water resources in the rainforest environment. This adaptation allows short plants to maximize their access to water resources, which can be limited in the canopy layer of the rainforest. In contrast, tall plants in the rainforest have small, narrow leaves to reduce water loss through transpiration. This adaptation is important in a rainforest environment where water is a limited resource. Small, narrow leaves have less surface area, which means they lose less water through transpiration.

Hence,    In a rainforest, an advantage of short plants having broad, flat leaves is that it allows them to capture more sunlight for photosynthesis.

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The splitting of water and the generation of oxygen occur where? Photosystem The Krebs CyclePhotosystem IIElectron transport chain The Calvin Cycle

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The splitting of water and the generation of oxygen occur in the photosystem II (PSII) of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.

PSII is located in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts and is responsible for capturing light energy and using it to drive the electron transport chain that produces ATP and NADPH for the Calvin cycle.

During PSII, light energy is used to excite electrons in the chlorophyll molecules of the photosystem, leading to the transfer of electrons from water molecules to the photosystem. This process, called photolysis, results in the splitting of water molecules into oxygen, protons, and electrons. The released oxygen is then released into the atmosphere, while the protons and electrons are used in the electron transport chain to generate ATP and NADPH for the Calvin cycle.

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In many cases, animals display structural traits of their ancestors only during embryonic development. Which of the following aquatic organisms might display limbs during embryonic development?blue whaleskiller whales

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Blue whales and killer whales both may display limb structures during embryonic development, due to their shared ancestry with terrestrial mammals.

What are whales?

Whales are a type of mammal that lives in water. Whales are a kind of mammal that lives in water. Whales can be divided into two groups: baleen and toothed. Whales, dolphins, and porpoises belong to the same group, Cetacea. Whales are separated from fish in many ways. They need to go to the surface to breathe since they can't breathe underwater. Whales are warm-blooded creatures that have hair and nurse their young.

Aquatic organisms that might display limbs during embryonic development:

Although whales don't display limbs during embryonic development, some aquatic animals might display limbs during embryonic development. They are:

Sharks and rays both have embryos that develop and have gill slits like their ancestors did in the early days of fish evolution.Sea snakes have embryos that grow limb buds, although the limbs are not usually visible.Amphibians develop their limbs while still in the egg, and many fish have modified pelvic fins that function like legs during locomotion.

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translation is accomplished by the interaction of three main components which include mrna, trna, and _____________.

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Translation is accomplished by the interaction of three main components which include mRNA, tRNA, and ribosomes.

Translation is the process of protein synthesis, which occurs in all living cells. This occurs when the genetic code, which is found in the form of DNA, is transcribed into mRNA (messenger RNA) and then translated into a protein. Translation is a complex process that occurs in multiple stages.Translation involves the following steps:Initiation: In this stage, the ribosome binds to the mRNA and scans it until it reaches the start codon, AUG. Once the ribosome reaches the start codon, the tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine (Met) binds to the start codon.Elongation: During this phase, the ribosome transfers Met-tRNA to the aminoacyl (A) site, forming a peptide bond between the carboxyl end of the polypeptide chain and the amino group of the incoming amino acid. The ribosome shifts to the next codon on the mRNA and a new aminoacyl tRNA is bound to the A site. The ribosome transfers the Met-tRNA to the P site and a new peptide bond is formed.Termination: During the last stage of translation, the ribosome reaches a stop codon, which signals the end of the protein-coding sequence. Release factors bind to the ribosome, causing it to release the mRNA and the polypeptide chain.

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which of the traditional five senses are dolphins believed not to possess?

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Dolphins do not have any orifices for smelling on their body, and more importantly they do not have an olfactory lobe in their brain, and they completely lack olfactory nerves.

They just breathe through the blowhole on top of their head, which is an analogue to our noses. Since they could no longer use the sense—blowholes are closed when the dolphin is underwater—the areas of the brain that used to control scent likely withered and shrivelled over time.

A dolphin's sense of taste is also deficient since only the genes responsible for feeling salty flavors are still active, whereas the genes responsible for tasting sweet, sour, spicy, and savory have been turned off. And to make matters worse, as people age, taste receptors are lost. When dolphins are young and immature, they still have a sense of taste, but once they reach adulthood, this sense completely disappears.

In humans and other land mammals, these two senses are inextricably linked, so it makes likely that they would have atrophied at the same time. The desire for these senses was diminished by going back to the water.

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what is the main advantage of live attenuated vaccine?

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The main advantage of a live attenuated vaccine is that it provides long-lasting immunity with a single dose. They elicit a potent and enduring immunological response.

Live attenuated vaccines contain weakened or modified versions of the virus or bacteria that cause the disease. Because the vaccine contains a live but weakened organism, it is able to replicate and stimulate a strong immune response in the body, similar to a natural infection, without causing the disease itself.

The immune response generated by a live attenuated vaccine is similar to that generated by a natural infection, including both humoral and cellular immunity. This provides long-lasting immunity to the disease, often with just one or two doses, and may provide protection against multiple strains of the pathogen.

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Scientists want to permanently change a type of wheat so that it will improve
survival during a drought. Which is the best way to improve these plants?
A. Scientists manipulate the cells as they undergo mitosis.
B. Scientists manipulate the cells as they undergo meiosis.
C. Scientists manipulate the cells as they undergo budding.
D. Scientists manipulate the cells as they undergo binary fission.

Answers

Answer:

The best way to improve the survival of wheat during a drought is to manipulate the cells as they undergo mitosis.

Mitosis is the process of cell division that results in the formation of two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the genetic material is duplicated and then divided equally between the two daughter cells. By manipulating the cells during mitosis, scientists can introduce genetic changes that will be present in all of the cells in the resulting plant.

In contrast, meiosis is the process of cell division that results in the formation of haploid cells with half the number of chromosomes as the original cell. Meiosis is used in sexual reproduction to produce gametes (such as sperm and egg cells) that have genetic diversity. Therefore, manipulating cells during meiosis is not likely to result in the desired changes to improve the survival of wheat during a drought.

Budding is a type of asexual reproduction where a new individual develops from an outgrowth or bud on the parent. Binary fission is the process of cell division in which a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. These processes are not relevant to improving the survival of wheat during a drought.

Therefore, option A - Scientists manipulate the cells as they undergo mitosis - is the best way to improve the plants.

white blood cells move into and out of blood vessels by the process of positive chemotaxis. T/F

Answers

White blood cells move into and out of blood vessels via the process of positive chemotaxis. Leukocytes move toward the areas of illness with high alert to inciting proteins after diapedesis. The correct answer is true.

Several agents have been shown to elicit a positive chemotactic response in the white cell in vitro system, but they have typically been poorly defined macromolecules (4, 5).

Chemotaxis is the movement of white blood cells toward an infection site, while diapedesis is the movement of leukocytes into and out of blood vessels. The process of isolating an infection to help stop its spread throughout the body is called inflammation.

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Compare and contrast how people taste sweetness, with how people taste spiciness. PLEASE HELPPP!!!!

Answers

Answer:

spiciness trigger is on one side of the tongue so is the sweetness

Explanation:

i did this

a scientist immerses actively dividing human cells in a medium containing a drug that blocks the dna replicating enzyme. which stage of the cell cycle is directly affected by the drug?

Answers

The drug that blocks the DNA replicating enzyme affects the S-phase of the cell cycle, during which DNA replication occurs.

In actively dividing human cells, the cell cycle progresses through several stages, including interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis. The S-phase is a critical stage during interphase, in which the cell's DNA is replicated in preparation for cell division. Blocking the DNA replicating enzyme would halt DNA synthesis and prevent the cell from proceeding to the next stage of the cell cycle, resulting in cell cycle arrest. This technique is often used in research to study the effects of blocking DNA replication on cellular processes and to investigate potential treatments for cancer and other diseases.

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why would it be necessary for seeds to have some way to inactivate aba when the conditions are right for germinatino

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Seeds must have a way to inactivate ABA when the conditions are appropriate for germination because ABA is an inhibitor hormone that slows or prevents germination.

A seed has a hormonal mechanism that detects environmental conditions such as light, temperature, and water availability. ABA is a hormone that inhibits germination when environmental conditions are unfavorable. The ABA concentration in the seed is reduced when the environmental conditions are suitable for germination, such as when it is moist and warm. This inactivation enables the germination process to proceed.

The plant produces GA, which stimulates seed germination, once ABA is inactivated. The phytohormone ABA is produced in mature seeds and maintains dormancy by inhibiting growth processes such as seed germination.

When the seeds are exposed to proper environmental conditions, such as light and moisture, the seed coat becomes permeable to water and oxygen, and the embryo develops, triggering seed germination. The reduction of ABA in seeds helps to promote the germination process.

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Which one of the following statements concerning cinder cones is false?
A) They are small volcanoes with fairly steep sides.
B) They are built mostly or entirely during one eruptive cycle.
C) The cinders and other pyroclastic particles are consolidated into welded tuff.
D) The cinders most commonly are basaltic.

Answers

The statement that cinders and other pyroclastic particles are consolidated into welded tuff is false. Here option C is the correct answer.

Cinder cones are small volcanoes typically composed of loose volcanic debris, including cinders, ash, and scoria, which are ejected from a single vent during an explosive eruption. These volcanic materials are relatively unconsolidated and can be easily eroded. Therefore, cinder cones typically have fairly steep sides due to the loose nature of their material.

Cinder cones are also usually built mostly or entirely during one eruptive cycle. This is because the eruptions that form cinder cones are generally short-lived and explosive, resulting in the rapid accumulation of material around the vent.

Furthermore, cinder cones are commonly associated with basaltic magmas, which are low in silica and gas content, resulting in relatively low viscosity and explosiveness.

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what has been learned about crawlers and walkers from studies using inclined planes? which kinds of infants will know their limits? does information transfer from one kind of locomotion (i.e., crawling) to another (i.e. walking)?

Answers

Studies using inclined planes have shown that crawlers are more likely to walk earlier and more competently than walkers who do not crawl as frequently and have found that infants can learn their limits during both crawling and walking. Research has also shown that information transfer from one type of locomotion to another is possible.


For infants, crawling and walking both involve navigating a variety of physical and sensory obstacles. As such, studies suggest that both crawlers and walkers can benefit from learning how to adjust their body movements and respond to their environment. In particular, crawling and walking on inclined planes can help infants to better understand their capabilities and develop their motor skills.

Information transfer is also evident from the movements of the infants. For example, babies that learn to crawl, i.e., crawlers are often more successful at walking, as the skills developed during crawling can be applied during walking.

Overall, research indicates that infants who learn to crawl and walk on inclined planes can improve their motor skills, develop better balance and spatial orientation, and understand their physical limits. Additionally, the experience of learning how to crawl and walk on inclines can be beneficial for transferring information between different forms of locomotion.

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What technology helped to support Hutton and Lyell’s hypothesis that Earth is much older than many people thought?

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Radiometric dating and stratigraphy were two important technologies that helped to support Hutton and Lyell's hypothesis that the Earth is much older than previously believed.

Radiometric dating techniques allowed scientists to accurately determine the age of rocks and fossils by measuring the decay of radioactive isotopes. This helped to confirm the geological time scale developed by Hutton and Lyell, which showed that the Earth had undergone many changes over a long period of time. Stratigraphy, the study of rock layers and their relationships to each other, helped to construct a timeline of geological events and determine the relative ages of different rock formations.

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what are some of the benefits of establishing a minimum wage?​

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[tex]It \: can \: be \: helpful \: depending \: \\ on the \: type \: of \: market. \\ It \: can \: help \: with \: reducing \\ tax \: burden. \\ It \: serves \: as \: an \: employment \\ \: incentive.[/tex]

Establishing minimum wage gives an incentive for people to work, these minimum wage job offers job security as wel
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